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Can we define the concept of limsup and liminf in $\mathbb{R}^n$, the Euclidean $n$ space? Like for real valued function with domain in $\mathbb{R^n}$?

Gonçalo
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nini
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    You need your function to take its values in a complete lattice. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limit_inferior_and_limit_superior – Anne Bauval Dec 25 '23 at 18:22

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As Anne says in the comments, to give an exact analogue to $\limsup$ and $\liminf$, you need a certain order structure (specifically a complete lattice). You could, in theory, define such an order on $\mathbb{R}^n$ for $n > 1$, but it wouldn’t likely “look like” a meaningful order.

However, if you’re willing to weaken things a bit, you can get something similar to $\limsup$ and $\liminf$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$.

Instead of generalizing $\liminf$ and $\limsup$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$, consider generalizing the interval with endpoints $(\liminf, \limsup)$. For a sequence $(x_j)$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$, we can easily analogize the limiting interval $[\liminf x_j, \limsup x_j]$ in $\mathbb{R}$ with a limiting bounding ball in $\mathbb{R}^n$. To be precise, if $B_r(y)$ denotes the closed ball in $\mathbb{R}^n$ with center $y$ and radius $r$, we could look at the collection $\mathcal{B}$ of all bounding balls $B_r(y)$ such that $(x_n)$ is eventually inside $B_r(y)$. Let $R$ denote the infimum of radii in $\mathcal{B}$.

Proposition: Suppose $B_{r_j}(y_j)$ is a sequence of balls in $\mathcal{B}$ such that $r_j \rightarrow R$. Then $y_j$ converges to some value $y_0$. Further, this limiting value $y_0$ is independent of the sequence of balls chosen.

This proof is annoying, but can be done with some work.

A consequence of this proposition is that there is a limiting ball! This limiting ball is exactly the $B_R(y_0)$, and our analogue of the interval with endpoints $\liminf$ and $\limsup$.

The choice of a ball here was arbitrary. You could instead boxes, or perhaps convex hulls of points.

Joe
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  • To my knowledge, $\liminf$ and $\limsup$ were introduced by du Bois-Reymond --- He may have used them, but the notion had previously been used by Cauchy. Of course, du Bois-Reymond may not have been aware of this, nor the mathematical community in general at that time. See Francois Ziegler's comment to this mathoverflow question. In fact, Cauchy even considered the notion of the cluster set of a function at a point -- see the beginning of my answer to Name for multi-valued analogue of a limit. – Dave L. Renfro Dec 25 '23 at 19:29
  • @DaveL.Renfro Ah good call! I have removed the erroneous history from the post. It appears I misinterpreted a passage in Thomas Hawkins’s book (https://maa.org/press/maa-reviews/lebesgues-theory-of-integration-its-origins-and-development). I think he is alleging du Bois-Reymond is the first to publish this applied to an infinite series of functions. Although apparently Gauss dit it earlier in an unpublished work. Thank you for correcting my understanding! – Joe Dec 26 '23 at 00:34