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There are various equivalent definitions of the concept of a category, but it seems to me that in all definitions the class $hom(\mathcal C)$ of morphisms of a category $\mathcal C$ is the disjoint union of the morphism sets $hom(A,B)$, where $A, B$ are the objects of $\mathcal C$.

The "classic" definition requires that we given for any two objects $A, B \in ob(\mathcal C)$ a set of morphisms $hom(A, B)$ such that

$$hom(A, B) \cap hom(A', B') = \emptyset \text{ if } (A, B) \ne (A', B') .$$ The class of all morphisms of $\mathcal C$ is then $$hom(\mathcal C) = \bigcup_{A, B \in ob(\mathcal C)} hom(A, B) .$$

An alternative definition takes the class $hom(\mathcal C)$ of all morphisms of $\mathcal C$ as a basic structural component of $\mathcal C$ plus two functions $dom, cod : hom(\mathcal C) \to ob(\mathcal C)$ which associate to a morphisms $f$ its domain $dom(f) $ and its codomain $cod(f)$, thus partitioning $hom(\mathcal C)$ into disjont morphism sets between the objects.

It is obvious that these definitions are equivalent, but to prove it we need the disjointness of the morphism sets $hom(A,B)$. This shows that disjointness is a very natural and useful requirement.

Nevertheless we could omit it in the "classic definition".

My question: Is there a deeper reason for the disjointness requirement, or is it just convenience?

Here are some arguments pro skipping disjointness.

  1. If necessary, we can replace $\mathcal C$ by the category $\mathcal C'$ which has the same objects and $$hom'(A,B) = \lbrace (A, f,B) \mid f \in hom(A,B) \rbrace .$$ This gives pairwise disjoint morphisms sets, though it is just a "formal trick".

  2. Frequently categories are defined in a way not giving pairwise disjoint morphism sets.

For example, in

Adámek, Jiří, Horst Herrlich, and George Strecker. Abstract and concrete categories. Wiley-Interscience, 1990.

one finds the following constructions:

Rel with objects all pairs $(X, \rho)$, where $X$ is a set and $\rho$ is a (binary) relation on $X$. Morphisms $f : (X, \rho) \to (Y, \sigma)$ are relation-preserving maps; i.e., maps $f : X \to Y$ such that $x \rho x'$ implies $f(x) \sigma f(x')$.

Pointed Categories
(a) Show that there is a category whose objects are all pairs of the form $(A, a)$, where $A$ is a set and $a \in A$ and $$hom((A, a), (B, b)) = \lbrace f | f : A \to B \text{ and } f(a) = b \rbrace .$$

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    Duplicate of https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1848926/ and https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4780182 and https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/651464 and many others on this site which you can find with the search function. – Martin Brandenburg Nov 19 '23 at 19:32
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    A related question is also: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/988936 – Martin Brandenburg Nov 19 '23 at 19:38
  • @MartinBrandenburg Thank you for drawing my attention to the linked questions. I should have searched on this site before asking ;-) Nevertheless one point remains open: Why do some authors insist on disjoint $hom$-sets and ignore it when giving examples (see my question)? One can of course regard this as a negligence, but doesn't it indicate that disjointness of $hom$-sets is an impractical requirement? Okay, perhaps a "philosophical " question ... – Kritiker der Elche Nov 21 '23 at 10:32
  • I don't agree with that observation. With the correct definition of a function (and of all derived notions), the hom-sets will be "disjoint" - but here disjointness should not be interpreted as the notion in ZFC, but rather that we have maps $s,t : \mathrm{Mor} \to \mathrm{Ob}$ (source and target). All this is already answered in the linked questions, I won't repeat it here. And surely this is very practical (actually, essential) to have source and target available. – Martin Brandenburg Nov 21 '23 at 10:39
  • See also https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4399501. – Paul Frost Nov 21 '23 at 11:47

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