This is not a personal question. I see people who are very confused by this question like me.
In short, I would like to ask that, which statement should we work on when trying to prove the Riemann hypothesis?
This?
$$\zeta_1(s) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^s}$$
Or this?
$$\zeta_2(s) = 2^s.\pi ^{s-1}.sin(\frac{\pi s}{2}).\Gamma(1-s).\zeta_2(1-s)$$
(I denoted them $\zeta_1 and \zeta_2$ to distinguish)
Are these expressions exactly equal? It can simply be seen $\zeta_1(2) \neq \zeta_2(2)$. Consider we found a root of zeta function $r$. If we substitute the root into $\zeta_1(r)$, we will still get $0$? If not, what does $\zeta_1$ do? If $\zeta_1$ and $\zeta_2$ are different, why people introduce the $\zeta_1 $ to explain the Riemann Hypothesis?