Let $X$ be a complete separable metric space and $\mu$ a Borel measure that is boundedly finite, i.e. $\mu(B) < \infty$ for all bounded Borel sets $B \subset X$. Call a Borel set $A$ an atom if $\mu(A) > 0$ and $$ B \subset A, \quad \mu(B) > 0 $$ imply $\mu(B) = \mu(A)$. If $A$ is an atom, does there exist a point $x \in A$ such that $\mu$ is concentrated on $x$ in $A$, i.e. $\mu(A) = \mu(\{x\})$? I believe I have a proof of this but can't find this or a similar result being stated anywhere. Thanks for any help.
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1See here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/987827/borel-measures-atoms-vs-point-masses/987851#987851 – Math1000 Oct 11 '23 at 18:59
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@Math1000 Thanks! – Cauchy's Sequence Oct 11 '23 at 19:57