To prove: if $A$ is any well-ordered set of real numbers and $B$ is a nonempty subset of $A$, then $B$ is well-ordered.
My attempt: Suppose towards a contradiction that given any well-ordered set of real numbers $A$ and a nonempty set $B$ which is a subset of $A$, that $B$ is not well-ordered. Then by the well-ordering principle, $A$ has a least element, say $\mathit n$, while $B$ does not have a least element. So for all $\mathit b\in B$, there exists an element $\mathit m \in B$ such that $\mathit m < \mathit b$. Since $B$ is a subset of $A$, $\mathit m$, $\mathit b \in A$. Suppose $\mathit n = \mathit b \in A$. Then by our initial assumption on $B$, there exists an element $\mathit m \in B$ such that $\mathit m < \mathit n$. But $B \subseteq A$ and by definition of the well-ordering of $A$, $\mathit m \geq n$. Contradiction.
Model answer: Let $S$ be a nonempty subset of $B$. We show that $S$ has a least element. Since $S$ is a subset of $B$ and $B$ is a subset of $A$, it follows that $S$ is a subset of $A$. Since $A$ is well-ordered, $S$ has a least element. Therefore, $B$ is well-ordered.
I would like to ask if my proof by contradiction for the above question is valid and rigorous enough, since I have a few doubts such as letting $n=b \in A$. Is doing this step valid?