I'm struggling with this question for over a week now. I know the proposition is true, but haven't managed to prove it yet. any suggestions anyone? ($f$ is BV on $I$ if $$\sup\left\{\sum|f(b_k)-f(a_k)| :a_{k+1}\gt b_{k}\gt a_{k} ; a_k,b_k\in I\right\}\lt \infty)$$
Asked
Active
Viewed 1,517 times
5
-
Are you allowed to use the fact that monotonic functions are differentiable a.e.? – Etienne Aug 28 '13 at 12:34
1 Answers
4
Every function of bounded variation is the difference of two monotonically non-decreasing functions. Monotonically non-decreasing functions are differentiable almost everywhere.
robjohn
- 353,833
-
-
1@Snir: These results are quite standard. For example, you can find them both proven in Prof. Tao's book "An Introduction to Measure Theory", which can be found for free online (just ask Google!) – Elchanan Solomon Aug 28 '13 at 12:54
-
2@Snir, see also Michael W. Botsko, An Elementary Proof of Lebesgue's Differentiation Theorem, The American Mathematical Monthly, 110 (2003), 834-838. – Umberto P. Aug 28 '13 at 12:54
-
Snir didn't say his function is real-valued. If it is complex valued: first show the real and imaginary parts are BV, then use the result here. – GEdgar Aug 28 '13 at 13:39