Why $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb Z, \mathbb Z) = \mathbb Z$?

Question

Is there a proof for this fact? Also, if I want to understand more the hom, ext, tor and tensor functors, should I study homological algebra course.

Here is a more general version of what you wish to prove: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2300149/show-that-operatornamehom-r-r-m-cong-m — Haran, Aug 24 '23 at 07:37

score 0 · Accepted Answer · answered Aug 24 '23 at 07:49

0

Hint: $\mathbb Z$ is generated by $\{1\}$, therefore $f\mapsto f(1)$ is the isomorphism.

answered Aug 24 '23 at 07:49

Ennar

1 Answers1