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I am reading a book (Teoría de la medida, Jaime San Martín, unfortunately it is not in PDF), and it gives me the following definition of measure:

Let $X$ a set and $\mathcal{C}\subseteq\mathcal{P}(X)$ such that $\emptyset\in\mathcal{C}$. A function $\mu:\mathcal{C}\to\overline{\mathbb{R}}_+$ is said to be a measure on $\mathcal{C}$ if it satisfies:

  1. $\mu(\emptyset)=0$
  2. $\mu$ is $\sigma$-aditive, i.e if $\{A_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\subseteq\mathcal{C}$ is a sequence of disjoint sets such that $\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}A_n\in\mathcal{C}$, then $$\mu\left(\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}A_n\right)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\mu(A_n)$$

The sets $A\in\mathcal{C}$ are called measurable.

Note that $\mathcal{C}$ is not a $\sigma$-algebra, unlike other texts I have read, In fact, the book first defines what a measure and two pages later defines what a $\sigma$-algebra is. It's the first time I read that any set is called "measurable", since I have always called only elements of a $\sigma$-algebra this way.

What is the advantage of working on $\sigma$-algebras? I mean, the Lebesgue measure is defined on the Borel $\sigma$-algebra, but $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$ is also a $\sigma$-algebra and it is not possible to use the Lebesgue measure on it because the Vitali set is in $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$, and I am not sure in fact if it is possible to define a measure or not in $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$. This generates conflict to me, because it's possible that there are problems with the definition of measurable sets of this book, and I need to work with this book. And finally, What kind of relationship must a measure have with a $\sigma$-algebra (or according to the definition in this book, any $\mathcal{C}\subseteq\mathcal{P}(X)$) so that there is no inconsistency when measuring the sets and so that there is no confusion when referring to "measurable sets"?

JadMON2k1
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  • One advantage of working with $\sigma$-algebras would be that you do not have to worry about the "such that $\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}A_n\in\mathcal{C}$" aspect in point 2 of the definition of measure you gave since the set $\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}A_n$ will always belong to your $\sigma$-algebra. – Bruno B Jul 27 '23 at 09:00
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    you can define measures without the need to define a $\sigma $-algebra, using what its usually known as an outer measure instead of a measure. However if you do that then some important theorem doesn't hold in general, as the monotone limits of measure of sets. For this last point of view you can take a look to Measure Theory and Fine Properties of Functions of Evans and Gariepy –  Jul 27 '23 at 09:09

1 Answers1

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I think you basically answered all your question already by yourself.

The power set is a $\sigma$-algebra but for some cases (e.g., $\mathbb R$) this $\sigma$-algebra contains too many sets so that a measure with certain properties that we would like to have, is not well-defined. The solution is to use a smaller $\sigma$-algebra. This is done in math all the time; for example, a strong solution of a differential equation may not exist. So mathematicians dropped some requirements of the solution and came up with the notion of a weak solution.

Now you may ask why does it have to be a $\sigma$-algebra and not, say, another subset of the power set? You can think of $\sigma$-algebras as something that encodes the notion of information: assume you know all possible outcomes, i.e., the set of interest is contained in the $\sigma$-algebra. Then, if an event happened, you immediately know what event did not happen, i.e., if a set is contained in the $\sigma$-algebra, its complement is also contained in the $\sigma$-algebra. Finally, you can count the events that happened to know what happened overall, i.e., if a countable number of sets are contained in the $\sigma$-algebra, so is their union. A measure now assigns numbers to each event, which we can, for example interpret as probability or volume or something else. Therefore, it's reasonable to define measures on $\sigma$-algebras. This is only an heuristic argument though.

Finally, for some fixed $x\in\mathbb R$, $$\delta_x(A) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if $x\in A$} \\ 0 & \text{else,} \end{cases}$$ defines a measure on $\mathcal P(\mathbb R)$.

lmaosome
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  • Thanks for your answer! I have the following additional doubts:

    So, really the correct definition of a measurable set (under $\mu$) would be that its evaluation is in $\overline{\mathbb{R}}_+$? if so, shouldn't this imply, first, if my goal is to get a measure of an $A\subseteq X$, I must prove first that there exists a function $f$ that satisfies the measurement properties and such that $f(A)$ is defined, second the existence of a subset of $\mathcal{P}(X)$ where all its elements are measurable under $f$ and that contains $A$ which can be the domain of $f$...

    – JadMON2k1 Jul 27 '23 at 19:04
  • ... so that it can be correctly defined as a function, and also that this set has $\sigma$-algebra structure?

    The second question is, according to the definition in the book, given that there are elements of $\mathcal{C}$ that would not be measurable, $\mu$ would not then be strictly speaking a function?

    – JadMON2k1 Jul 27 '23 at 19:04
  • Oh, I noticed that the function $\delta_x$ that you gave me could be used to prove that there is that function $f$ that I mentioned, in fact $\delta_x$ would be the function I am looking for, am I right? – JadMON2k1 Jul 27 '23 at 19:13
  • to be honest, I am not sure if I understood you correctly, but I believe that is not what is going on. There are two almost identical ways: 1. you start with an outer measure and call a set measurable if it satisfies Carathéodory's measurability criterion. The set of measurable sets will form a $\sigma$-algebra, and the outer measure restricted to this subset of the power set is called a measure. 2. start with $\sigma$-algebra and a measure (which can be extended to an outer measure). Sets contained in the $\sigma$-algebra are called measurable. – lmaosome Jul 28 '23 at 08:01
  • It seems to me that the book considers some variant of 2. to avoid the need of introducing $\sigma$-algebras before measures. Therefore, the author defines the measure on some subset of the power set that includes the empty set and is stable under countable disjoint unions. Note that this is required for the measure to be well-defined. This approach, however, has many disadvantages. For example, the measure may not be continuous from above, while a measure defined on a $\sigma$-algebra always is. – lmaosome Jul 28 '23 at 08:10