I am reading a book (Teoría de la medida, Jaime San Martín, unfortunately it is not in PDF), and it gives me the following definition of measure:
Let $X$ a set and $\mathcal{C}\subseteq\mathcal{P}(X)$ such that $\emptyset\in\mathcal{C}$. A function $\mu:\mathcal{C}\to\overline{\mathbb{R}}_+$ is said to be a measure on $\mathcal{C}$ if it satisfies:
- $\mu(\emptyset)=0$
- $\mu$ is $\sigma$-aditive, i.e if $\{A_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\subseteq\mathcal{C}$ is a sequence of disjoint sets such that $\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}A_n\in\mathcal{C}$, then $$\mu\left(\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}A_n\right)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\mu(A_n)$$
The sets $A\in\mathcal{C}$ are called measurable.
Note that $\mathcal{C}$ is not a $\sigma$-algebra, unlike other texts I have read, In fact, the book first defines what a measure and two pages later defines what a $\sigma$-algebra is. It's the first time I read that any set is called "measurable", since I have always called only elements of a $\sigma$-algebra this way.
What is the advantage of working on $\sigma$-algebras? I mean, the Lebesgue measure is defined on the Borel $\sigma$-algebra, but $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$ is also a $\sigma$-algebra and it is not possible to use the Lebesgue measure on it because the Vitali set is in $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$, and I am not sure in fact if it is possible to define a measure or not in $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{R})$. This generates conflict to me, because it's possible that there are problems with the definition of measurable sets of this book, and I need to work with this book. And finally, What kind of relationship must a measure have with a $\sigma$-algebra (or according to the definition in this book, any $\mathcal{C}\subseteq\mathcal{P}(X)$) so that there is no inconsistency when measuring the sets and so that there is no confusion when referring to "measurable sets"?