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Let $f_{n}$ be a sequence of continuous functions with $f$ continuous on $\left[0,1\right]$. Prove that if $x_{n}$ is a sequence in $\left[0,1\right]$ such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}x_{n}=x$ for some $x\in \left[0,1\right]$ implies $\lim_{n\to\infty}f_{n}(x_{n})=f(x)$.Then $f_{n}$ converges uniformly to $f$ on $\left[0,1\right]$.

I tried to prove by contrapositive. If $f_{n}$ does not converge to $f$ uniformly on $\left[0,1\right]$, then there exists an $\epsilon_{0}>0$ such that, for all $N>0$, there exists an $n>N$ and $x\in\left[0,1\right]$ such that $|f_{n}(x)-f(x)|\ge\epsilon_{0}$.

For example for $N=1$, there exists an $x_{1}\in \left[0,1\right]$ and $n_{1}>1$ such that $|f_{n_1}(x_{1})-f(x_1)|\ge \epsilon_{0}$.We can do this for any $N=k$ and choose $n_{k}>k$, construct a sequence $x_{k} \in \left[0,1\right]$ such that $|f_{n_k}(x_{k})-f(x_{k})|\ge \epsilon_{0}$. Since every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence by Bolzano Weierstrass theorem there exists a subsequence $x_{k_{l}}$ of $x_{k}$ such that $\lim_{k_{l}\to\infty}x_{k_{l}}=x$ for some $x \in \left[0,1\right]$. Then $1)$ $\lim_{k_{l}\to\infty} f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})=f(x)$. Then there exists a contradiction,

$$|f(x_{k_{l}})-f_{n_{k_{l}}}(x_{k_{l}})|<|f(x_{k_{l}})-f(x)|+|f(x)-f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})|+|f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})-f_{n_{k_{l}}}(x_{k_{l}})|$$

Now it can be clearly seen that $f_{n}$ converges to $f$ pointwise and although left side is greater than $\epsilon_{0}$ right side can be made less than $\epsilon_{0}$ by using pointwise convergence Cauchyness the result $1)$ and the continuity of the function $f$.Is everything fine?Is my proof well?

MathFail
  • 21,529

1 Answers1

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Two issues in your work.

(1) Small issue:

For example for $N=1$, there exists an $x_{1}\in \left[0,1\right]$ and $n_{1}>1$ such that $|f_{n_1}(x_{1})-f(x_1)|\ge \epsilon_{0}$.We can do this for any $N=k$ and choose $n_{k}>k$, construct a sequence $x_{k} \in \left[0,1\right]$ such that $|f_{n_k}(x_{k})-f(x_{k})|\ge \epsilon_{0}$.

Subsequence needs to be ascending on its index, hence, for $N=2$, you need to pick $n_2$, such that $n_2>\max(2, n_1)$. Keep going, for $N=k$, pick $n_k$, such that $n_k>\max(k, n_{k-1})$.

(2) Big issue:

$$|f(x_{k_{l}})-f_{n_{k_{l}}}(x_{k_{l}})|<|f(x_{k_{l}})-f(x)|+|f(x)-f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})|+|f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})-f_{n_{k_{l}}}(x_{k_{l}})|$$

How do you justify the last term $|f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})-f_{n_{k_{l}}}(x_{k_{l}})|<\epsilon$ ? For simple, we define $p=k_l$, then the last term is converted to

$$|f_{p}(x_{p})-f_{n_{p}}(x_{p})|\underset{?}<\epsilon$$

For example, let $f_p(x)=x^p, x_p=1-\frac1p$, then $$\lim_{p\to\infty}f_p(x_p)=\lim_{p\to\infty}\left(1-\frac1p \right)^p= e^{-1}$$

In your construction, there is no "complete" control for the relation between $n_p$ and $p$. So if we set $n_p=p^2$

$$\lim_{p\to\infty}f_{n_{p}}(x_{p})=\lim_{p\to\infty}\left(1-\frac1p \right)^{p^2}=0$$

So the last term $|f_{k_{l}}(x_{k_{l}})-f_{n_{k_{l}}}(x_{k_{l}})|>\frac12e^{-1}$, which is not approaching to zero and you can't say it is a contradiction.

MathFail
  • 21,529
  • For your last comment I used $f_{n}$ converges pointwise to $f$ therefore $f_{n}$ is Cauchy so is the subsequence. Regarding your example the basic hypothesis of the question $x_{n}$ converges to $x$ implies $f_{n}(x_{n})$ converges to $f(x)$ does not hold. Therefore your example contradicts with the basic hypothesis of the question. Moreover it is very clear that pointwise convergence of $f_{n}$ to $f$ this clearly implies Cauchyness. – maths and chess Jun 19 '23 at 10:25
  • What is $f(x)$ in your example? – maths and chess Jun 19 '23 at 10:29
  • Surely this example doesn't satisfies some of the condition of the OP, otherwise the claim will be false. But this example means there are flaws in your proof, and you need to revise your proof. – MathFail Jun 19 '23 at 11:49
  • Where should I revise about your claim big issue then there is no big issue? – maths and chess Jun 19 '23 at 12:45
  • You need to prove the last term in your bottom inequality is infinitely small. Note you cannot say it is Cauchy, because to say Cauchy, it has to be at a fixed point $x$ inside your $f_{k_l}(x)$ and $f_{n_{k_l}}(x)$, while in your last term it is not fixed, but a running sequence $x_{k_l}$, which will cause a competition issue. – MathFail Jun 19 '23 at 13:51