The wedge product of two vectors $\vec{v}, \vec{w}\in\mathbb{R}^{n}$ can be defined as an anti-symmetrized tensor product. In three dimensions, there is a correspondence between the wedge product of two vectors and the cross product of two vectors. As a result, given any bivector $$ \overline{v} = v_{1}\vec{e}_{y}\wedge\vec{e}_{z} + v_{2}\vec{e}_{z}\wedge\vec{e}_{x} + v_{3}\vec{e}_{x}\wedge\vec{e}_{y}, $$ we can convert it to a vector $$ v_{1}\vec{e}_{x} + v_{2}\vec{e}_{y} + v_{3}\vec{e}_{z}, $$ find two perpendicular vectors $\vec{a}, \vec{b}$ for which $\vec{a}\times\vec{b} = \sum_{i} v_{i}\vec{e}_{i}$, and then $\vec{a}\wedge\vec{b} = \overline{v}$.
Thus, any bivector in three-dimensional space is a 2-blade. This fact is true in 1, 2, and 3 dimensional space, but it fails to hold in 4 dimensions. Given that seven-dimensional space has a cross product of the form $\mathbb{R}^{7}\times\mathbb{R}^{7}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^{7}$ according to this post, does it stand to reason that any bivector can rewritten as a 2-blade as well in seven-dimensional space?
If yes, can we make a concrete proof? If no, is there a counterexample (e.g. $\vec{e}_{1}\wedge\vec{e}_{2}+\vec{e}_{3}\wedge\vec{e}_{4}$) with a proof that it is a counterexample? Moreover if no, why would my reasoning sketch involving the cross product in 3D fail for 7D?