Is it true that if $$F\to E\to B$$ is a homotopy fibration and $F\to X$ is nullhomotopic, then there exists a map $B\to X$ making the diagram commutative?
Thank you.
Is it true that if $$F\to E\to B$$ is a homotopy fibration and $F\to X$ is nullhomotopic, then there exists a map $B\to X$ making the diagram commutative?
Thank you.
Let $$B = \{(x, \sin(1/x)):x\in(0, 1]\}\cup\{(-x, \sin(1/x)):x\in (0, 1]\}\cup \{(0, y):y\in [-1, 1]\}$$ and write $C_1$ to be the left "sine part" and $C_2$ the right and $L$ the "line part". $B$ is connected but has three path components: $C_1, C_2, L$.
Take $E = C_1\cup C_2$. Since it is a union of path components, the inclusion $E\hookrightarrow B$ is a fibration because any homotopy $Z\times I\to B$ with one end in $E$ must land in $E$. The fibre (with basepoint $(1, \sin 1)$ say) is a singleton.
There is no retraction $B\to E$ because $B$ is connected but $E$ is not. In fact, any map $f\colon B\to E$ lands in $C_1$ or $C_2$, so the composition $E\hookrightarrow B\xrightarrow{f}E$ lands in $C_1$ or $C_2$ and hence can't even be homotopic to the identity map, i.e., there's no dotted arrow making the diagram commute up to homotopy.
More generally, consider the covering map $S^1\to S^1$ given by squaring (this is a 2-1 covering with a finite fibre and the inclusion of the fibre is null homotopic because $S^1$ is path connected). There is no map making the diagram commute (even up to homotopy) for $E = X = B = S^1$, $E\to X$ identity, $E\to B$ squaring.