$x_j$ is a sequence, define its equivalent class as
$$ [x_j]=\{(z_j)_{j\geq1} \mid (z_j - x_j)_{j\geq 1}\in Y\}\\ \text{where} \ Y \ \text{is a linear subspace} $$ Do we have the following statement?
$$ \lim_{j\xrightarrow{} \infty} |x_j|=0 \Rightarrow [x_j]=[0] $$
Sry if there's any unclear conditions, I'm kind of new to functional analysis, my question comes from this video frame
I'll present all background knowledge here $$ X \text{ is a complete normed linear space}\\ Z=\{(x_j)_{j\geq 1} \mid x_j\in X, \ (x_j) \text{ is CAUCHY}\}\\ Y=\{(x_j)_{j\geq 1}\mid x_j\xrightarrow{} 0\}\\ \overline{X}=Z\mid _Y $$ $x_j$ is a sequence, define its equivalent class as
$$ [x_j]=\{(z_j)_{j\geq1} \mid (z_j - x_j)_{j\geq 1}\in Y\}\\ \text{but I cannot conclude which space } x_j \text{ belongs to} $$
Based on the knowledge above, the professor writes down the following inference $$ |[x_j]|=0\\ \Rightarrow \lim_{j\xrightarrow{} \infty} |x_j|=0 \\ \Rightarrow [x_j]=[0] \\ \Rightarrow (x_j) \in Y $$
My question is how does he derive the following inference in the middle? $$ \lim_{j\xrightarrow{} \infty} |x_j|=0 \Rightarrow [x_j]=[0] $$