In linear algebra, we have the following well-known result.
Proposition. Every real symmetric matrix $A$ is congruent to a diagonal matrix with real eigenvalues on the diagonal. That is, $A=P^T \Lambda P$, where $P$ is orthogonal and $\Lambda:=\left(\lambda_i\right)_{n\times n}$.
Question: Is the spectral theorem absolutely indispensable when proving this result? Is it possible to bypass the spectral theorem?
It seems to me, matrix similarity relates different matrix forms ($A_{B_1}$ and $A_{B_2}$) of a same linear operator $A$ under different bases ($B_1$ and $B_2$): $A_{B_1}=P_{12}^{-1} A_{B_2} P_{12}$. In general, this has nothing to do with matrix congruence. The two concepts seem to only coincide when the operator involved is self-adjoint w.r.t a fixed inner product $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$ and the change of basis is between two orthonormal bases. But if so, spectral theorem seems unavoidable. Then, such a change of basis induces a unitary (orthogonal) matrix $P$, which happens to satisfy $P^*=P^{-1}$ (or $P^T=P^{-1}$ in the real case).
Is this understanding correct? That is, we can only first get to matrix similarity through the spectral theorem, and then get to matrix congruence by the fact that we happen to have a change of orthonormal basis, which is unitary (orthogonal)?
Thanks in advance.