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While helping a highschooler studying for her Calculus class, she showed me a convergence test for series which is kind of a hybrid between the ratio and root test, and of which I was not aware:

Theorem: Suppose $a_n>0$ for all $n$.

  1. If $\limsup_n\Big(\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\Big)^n<\frac1e$, then the series $\sum_na_n$ converges.
  2. If there is $N$ such that for all $n\geq N$, $\Big(\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\Big)^n\geq\frac1e$, then the series $\sum_na_n$ diverges.

I put this test to the test with simple examples:

  • $\sum_n\frac1n$: $\Big(\frac{n+1}{n}\Big)^n=\big(1+\tfrac1n\big)^n\nearrow e$ and so, with $a_n=\frac1n$, $\Big(\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\Big)^n\geq\frac1e$ which means that $\sum_n\frac1n$ diverges, as it should.

  • $\sum_n\frac1{n^p}$: $\Big(\frac{n}{n+1}\Big)^{pn}=\frac{1}{\big(1+\frac1n\big)^{np}}\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{1}{e^p}$. For $p>1$ we get convergence and for $p<1$ divergence, as it should

  • $\sum_n\frac{(a)_n(b_n)}{(c)_nn!}$, where $(z)_0:=1$ and $(z)_n=z\cdot\ldots\cdot(z+n-1)$ for $n\geq1$, $z\in \mathbb{C}$. For simplicity, assume that $a,b,c\in\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Z}_-$. Let $u_n=\Big|\frac{(a)_n(b_n)}{(c)_nn!}\Big|$. Then, for all $n$ large enough $$\Big(\frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}\big)^n=\Big(\frac{(a+n)(b+n)}{(n+1)(n+c)}\Big)^n= \Big(1+\frac{a-1}{n+1}\Big)^n\Big(1+\frac{b-c}{n+1}\Big)^n\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}e^{a+b-c-1}$$ The series $\sum_nu_n$ converges if $a+b-c<0$ and diverges if $a+b-c>0$. This can also be obtained by Raabe's test for example.

In fact, the Theorem above seems to be at the same level as Raabe's test in the de Morgan hierarchy.

Question: Does anybody know of the provenance of the Theorem above amd/or a reference?

Thanks!


Edit: Just to present a short proof of the theorem above:

(1) Let $p>1$ be such that $\limsup_n\Big(\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\Big)^n<\frac{1}{e^p}<\frac{1}{e}$ Then, there is $N$ such that for all $n\geq N$ $$a_{n+1}<e^{-p/n}a_n$$ Let $H_n:=\sum^n_{k=1}\frac1k$ the $n$-th sum of the harmonic series. It follows that $$a_{n+1}<\exp(-pH_n)e^{H_N}a_N<c_Nn^{-p},\qquad n\geq N$$ for some constant $C_N>0$.

(2) The assumption here implies that for all $n\geq N$ $$a_{n+1}\geq e^{-1/n}a_n$$ and so, $$a_{n+1}\geq e^{-\big(\tfrac{1}{n}+\ldots+\tfrac{1}{N}\big)}a_N=e^{-H_n}e^{H_N}a_N\geq \frac{C_N}{n}$$ for some constant $c_N>0$. Hence $\sum_na_n$ diverges.

Mittens
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    Compare https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3593295/42969 – Martin R Apr 05 '23 at 04:36
  • @MartinR: I just noticed the existence of that posting using Approach zero. However, the provenance of the result is not discussed there. If you read Czech (there isa link to a Czech site ) does not seem say much about the provenance. Incidentally, the highschooler I am working with got the result from the English translation to that site (provided by her instructor). It could be that it is a folklore theorem in Eastern-European schools (my Soviet textbooks do not have that result neither in lecture notes nor in the exercise books). – Mittens Apr 05 '23 at 04:42
  • I don't speak Czech, but according to Google Translate it is a “relatively unknown test that it doesn't even have a name.” – Btw, your ”Edit” is a proof of (1), not of (2), isn't it? – Martin R Apr 05 '23 at 06:35
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    In any case it is closely related to Raabe's test: Just using the inequality $\ln(x) \le x-1$ it is easy to see that condition (1) implies that $\liminf n \left( \frac{a_n}{a_{n+1}}-1\right) > 1$, and conversely, $n \left( \frac{a_n}{a_{n+1}}-1\right) \le 1$ for $n \ge N$ implies condition (2). – It would be interesting to find examples where one of these two tests gives a conclusive answer, but the other does not. If $\frac{a_n}{a_{n+1}}$ converges to $1$ then the tests are equivalent. – Martin R Apr 05 '23 at 07:06
  • As far as I know, this result was first proved relatively recently (for a result such as this): Orrin Frink, A ratio test, Bulletin of the American Mathematical Society 54 #10 (October 1948), p. 953. I thought Frink's paper was relatively well known, but a google search seems to show otherwise. I came across Frink's paper at least 40 years ago while browsing through library journal volumes of Bull. AMS. (continued) – Dave L. Renfro Apr 05 '23 at 08:29
  • The paper caught my attention at the time (and it was one of the first papers I ever made a photocopy of) by being one of only a handful of papers anywhere in Bull. AMS that at the time I had the background to follow everything. @Martin R: Regarding your comment, see Marceli Stark, On a ratio test of Frink, Colloquium Mathematicum 2 #1 (1949), pp. 46-47. – Dave L. Renfro Apr 05 '23 at 08:29
  • @DaveL.Renfro: That qualifies as an answer, don't you think? – Martin R Apr 05 '23 at 08:48
  • @Martin R: I'm essentially just giving a link (link-only answers frowned on here) and don't have time to expand it out more by giving examples and a proof outline. On the other hand, in looking at the actual "Question" (which I didn't really pay attention to earlier, as I only wanted to mention Frink's paper) and given how little known Frink's paper is (I'm shocked, given books such as 1 and 2), maybe this is worth elevating to an answer. – Dave L. Renfro Apr 05 '23 at 09:00
  • @DaveL.Renfro: "...relatively recently..." for some value of "relatively" :-) – Lee Mosher Apr 05 '23 at 13:58

1 Answers1

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(edited from comments)

As far as I know, this result was first proved relatively recently (for a result such as this):

Orrin Frink, A ratio test, Bulletin of the American Mathematical Society 54 #10 (October 1948), p. 953.

I thought Frink's paper was relatively well known, but google searches (regular & book & scholar) seem to show otherwise.

I came across Frink's paper roughly 41-42 years ago while browsing through library journal volumes of Bull. AMS. The paper caught my attention at the time (and it was one of the first papers I ever made a photocopy of) by being one of only a handful of papers anywhere in Bull. AMS that, at the time, I had the background to follow everything.

Regarding Martin R's comment about the relation of Frink's test to Raabe's test, see Marceli Stark, On a ratio test of Frink, Colloquium Mathematicum 2 #1 (1949), pp. 46-47. Note: In several web sites the title of Stark's paper is incorrectly given as "On the ratio test of Frink". Also, the footnote in Stark's paper incorrectly gives Vol. 55 for Frink's paper.

  • Unfortunately I cannot open the Stark article. My browser (Safari on macOS) complains about an “insecure” connection. – Martin R Apr 05 '23 at 09:24
  • @Martin R: If you send me an email, I can make a scan from my photocopy of Stark's paper, a photocopy I made maybe 10-15 years ago and which (even after scanning) will probably be of higher quality than the Coll. Math.'s .pdf file. However, I need to leave for 60-90 minutes (gym), so if you are interested, I'll take care of this when I return. – Dave L. Renfro Apr 05 '23 at 09:30
  • It is not that important to me, but thanks a lot for the offer. I just wanted to mention it, as other people may also have problems with the link. – Martin R Apr 05 '23 at 09:33
  • @DaveL.Renfro, Thanks for your illuminating comments and for all the references. It also gives me a good reason to send my highshcooler to my university library. Perhaps it is time to update the Wikipedia page on the ration test. – Mittens Apr 05 '23 at 13:07