I have
$$\sigma = \binom{1\ 2\ 3\ 4\ 5}{2\ 5\ 4\ 3\ 1} \in S_5$$
How do I show that $(1, 4)\sigma (1, 4)^{−1}$ is not an element of $\langle \sigma \rangle$?
(I don't know even what $(1, 4)\sigma (1, 4)^{−1}$ means so I need help with the basics)
I have
$$\sigma = \binom{1\ 2\ 3\ 4\ 5}{2\ 5\ 4\ 3\ 1} \in S_5$$
How do I show that $(1, 4)\sigma (1, 4)^{−1}$ is not an element of $\langle \sigma \rangle$?
(I don't know even what $(1, 4)\sigma (1, 4)^{−1}$ means so I need help with the basics)
$\sigma$ is a permutation which was defined in the problem statement. $(1,4)$ is the permutation which swaps $1$ and $4$ while leaving the rest alone. $(1,4)^{-1}$ is the inverse of that permutation (which feels a bit silly to write this way since $(1,4)^{-1}$ is just equal to $(1,4)$ until you realize we're trying to generalize). So, $(1,4)\sigma(1,4)^{-1}$ is the product (or composition) of the three permutations $(1,4),\sigma,$ and $(1,4)^{-1}$. Finally $\langle \sigma\rangle$ is the subgroup of $S_5$ generated by $\sigma$.
So, the question is whether $(1,4)\sigma(1,4)^{-1}$ is equal to one of the permutations in the subgroup generated by $\sigma$
This is trying to lead you to discovering whether the subgroup generated by $\sigma$ is normal or not. Perhaps you haven't studied normal subgroups yet, and this question was just there to plant the seed so that in a few more lessons you can look back and realize why this question was asked the way it was.
Suggested approach. What can you say about every element of $\langle \sigma\rangle$ with respect to the possible values that the number $3$ gets mapped to?
$3$ is always only ever going to be mapped to $3$ or $4$.
After evaluating $(1,4)\sigma(1,4)^{-1}$, what value does $3$ get mapped to here?
$3$ gets mapped to $1$ in the result of $(1,4)\sigma(1,4)^{-1}$
What can you conclude from that?
$(1,4)\sigma(1,4)^{-1}$ is not an element of $\langle\sigma\rangle$ and therefore $\langle\sigma\rangle$ is not a normal subgroup of $S_5$.