As is an offshoot of this earlier MSE question I seek to prove that if $a\ge 1$ and $k = (2a-1)q+2a-2 $ then $k\ge q$
MY ATTEMPT
Suppose to the contrary that both $$k=(2a-1)q+2a-2, a \geq 1$$ and $$k=1$$ hold.
Then we obtain $$1=(2a-1)q+2a-2$$ $$3-2a=(2a-1)q$$ $$q = \frac{3-2a}{2a-1}.$$
Let $$f(a) = \frac{3-2a}{2a-1}.$$ Differentiating $f$ with respect to $a$, we obtain $$f'(a) = -\frac{4}{(2a-1)^2} < 0$$ which means that $f$ is a decreasing function of $a$. Since $a \geq 1$, then we obtain $$f(a) \leq f(1) = \frac{3-2(1)}{2(1)-1} = 1.$$
This implies that $$q = \frac{3-2a}{2a-1} \leq 1.$$ But since $q$ is the special prime, satisfying $q \equiv 1 \pmod 4$, then we have $q \geq 5$. This is a contradiction.
This proves that the condition $k=1$ is incompatible with the assumption "$k=(2a-1)q+2a-2$ with $a \geq 1$".
Here is my:
FINAL QUESTION: As I find my proof in the MY ATTEMPT section unsatisfying, can you think of an alternative proof for the same fact?