I am taking a beginner's probability theory course. One thing that is confusing me a lot. We know that the probability of a continuous random variable at a fixed point is $0$. But when learning about conditional density functions in joint distributions, we know that
For any $y_2$ such that $f_2(y_2) > 0$, the conditional density of $Y_1$ given $Y_2 = y_2$ is given by $$f (y_1\mid y_2) = \frac{f (y_1, y_2)}{f_2(y_2)}$$ If we say for instance the probability of $Y_2$ at a fixed point is $0$, how does it make sense to take a fixed value of $Y_2$ when using conditional density function?
Please don't mark this as duplicate, I have seen all other answers on conditional probability, but I am looking for an intuitive answer possibly with an intuitive example to clear up the confusion. All other answers state we can condition on events with zero probability in continuous distributions, but none of them state why.
Can someone please explain, thanks.