It is said in my textbook and many proofs online that transitive abelian permutation groups are regular. However, the proofs always rely on the statement that if $G$ is a permutation group acting on $X$ and $gx = x$ for all $x,$ then $g = e.$
This is only true if the action is faithful, yet this is never mentioned. Why is this assumption constantly dropped? Permutation groups don't necessarily have to be faithful nor do the references I see assume that when defining them, you can consider $S_2$ acting on $\{1\}$ in the only possible way for example.
Sources: Projective Planes by Hughes & Piper
https://mathworld.wolfram.com/PermutationGroup.html
Dummitt & Foote
Questions and answers which make the assumption:
Proof that a transitive permutation group (G, X) with G abelian, is sharply regular
Showing that a transitive abelian permutation group is necessarily regular