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I am trying to understand ring of fractions and I have this question: From ring $\Bbb Z/9\Bbb Z$ determine the different rings of fractions that can be obtained according to the choice of $D$.

Dummit 7.5: Theorem 15. Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Let $D$ be any nonempty subset of $R$ that does not contain $0$, does not contain any zero divisors and is closed under multiplication. Then there is a commutative ring $Q$ with $1$ such that $Q$ contains $R$ as a subring and every element of $D$ is a unit in $Q$. (The ring $Q$ is called the ring of fractions of $D$ with respect to $R$ and is denoted $D^{-1}R$.)

So, the first thing I did was to find the subset $D$. I consider there are four subsets with this characteristics: $D_1 =$ {1}, $D_2 =$ {1, 8}, $D_3 =$ {1, 4, 7}, $D_4 =$ {1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8}. Then, I wrote the elements of $D_1^{-1}R$, nine elements, so I claim is isomorphic to $\Bbb Z/9\Bbb Z$. The same way, $D_2^{-1}R$, nine different elements again and this ring would be isomorphic to $\Bbb Z/9\Bbb Z$.

I am not quite sure of my procedure, feels like I'm doing something wrong. I would really appreciate your help to guide me on the right way, or any advice to find those different ring of fractions.

Jhon C
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    You've correctly computed the examples. The "problem" is that all the elements of your $D_i$ are already units in $\mathbb{Z}/9\mathbb{Z}$, so forming $D_i^{-1} R$ doesn't produce anything new. This is true in general for $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$: every element is either a unit or a zero divisor. – Viktor Vaughn Feb 03 '23 at 08:31
  • So you're probably better off trying a different example. Two that come to mind are $R = \mathbb{Z}$ with $D_1 = {1, 2, 4, 8, \ldots, 2^i, \ldots }$ and the same $R$ with $D_2 = \mathbb{Z} \setminus (2) = {\text{odd integers}}$. – Viktor Vaughn Feb 03 '23 at 08:45
  • @ViktorVaughn - I understand that every element in $D_i$ are already units in $\Bbb Z/9\Bbb Z$. But is not clear for me, why every $D_i^{-1}R$ produce the same ring. I mean, what I am missing about the fact every element is unit. Thanks for your explanation and examples. – Jhon C Feb 03 '23 at 15:40
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    When making a ring of fractions, you're choosing a set of elements you want to make invertible by introducing their inverses to the ring, if necessary. If your set of choice contains only units, then to make them invertible, you just have to leave the ring in peace. They're already invertible! – Vercassivelaunos Feb 05 '23 at 08:44

2 Answers2

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To form the ring of fractions of a commutative ring, you use its set of regular elements $S$.

We always have the image of $R$ in $RS^{-1}$, the elements of the form $r/1$.

For each unit $u\in R\subseteq S$, consider an element like $r/u\in RS^{-1}$. Using definitions it's easy to verify that $r/u= ru^{-1}/1$, and since $ru^{-1}\in R$ we see that every fraction of the form $r/u$ is nothing new, it's just something in (the image of) $R$.

So for a commutative ring whose regular elements are exactly the units, localization doesn't produce anything new.

This includes not only rings like $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ with $n>1$, but also every commutative Artinian ring, and also some broader classes are included.

rschwieb
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You've correctly computed the examples. The reason you keep getting $R$ for your localization is that all the elements of your $D_i$ are already units in $R$. Basically by definition $D^{-1} R$ is the "smallest" ring containing $R$ such that each element of $D$ is invertible---since these elements are already invertible in $R$, then $D^{-1}R$ is isomorphic to $R$ itself. ("Smallest" can be made precise, as I explain below.) As a note, if you restrict your $D$ to only contain non-(zero divisors) the same phenomenon will occur for $\newcommand{\Z}{\mathbb{Z}} \Z/n\Z$, as every element is either a unit or a zero divisor.

Localization satisfies the following universal property. (See here for a reference.) There is a ring homomorphism \begin{align*} \varphi: R &\to D^{-1} R\\ r &\mapsto r/1 \, , \end{align*} and, given any ring homomorphism $\psi: R \to S$ such that $\psi(D) \subseteq S^\times$, i.e., such that $\psi(d)$ is a unit in $S$ for every $d \in D$, then there is a unique ring homomorphism $\rho: D^{-1} R \to S$ such that the following diagram commutes.

$\hspace 5cm$enter image description here

In your example, since all the elements of $D$ are invertible in $R$, we can apply this to the identity map $\newcommand{\id}{\operatorname{id}} \id_R: R \to R$, which yields

$\hspace 5cm$enter image description here

so $\rho \circ \varphi = \id_R$. I claim that $\varphi \circ \rho = \id_{D^{-1} R}$ as well, which would show that $\varphi$ and $\rho$ are mutually inverse isomorphisms, so $R \cong D^{-1} R$.

To see this, note that $\varphi \circ \rho \circ \varphi = \varphi$. We now apply the universal property to the map $\varphi$ itself: there exists a unique homomorphism $D^{-1} R \to D^{-1} R$ such that the following diagram commutes.

$\hspace 5cm$enter image description here

But we have two homomorphisms completing the diagram: the identity map $\id_{D^{-1} R}$ and $\varphi \circ \rho$. By uniqueness, then we must have $\varphi \circ \rho = \id_{D^{-1} R}$, as desired.

One can also see why $R = D^{-1} R$ in a more concrete way using elements. Since each $d \in D$ has an inverse in $R$, given $r/d \in D^{-1} R$, then $$ \frac{r}{d} = \frac{r d^{-1}}{1} \in \operatorname{img}(\varphi) $$ so every element of $D^{-1} R$ is in the image of $\varphi$, hence $\varphi$ is surjective. Since $\varphi$ is injective (here we are using the assumption that $D$ contains no zero divisors), then it is an isomorphism.

Viktor Vaughn
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