The proof of Thm. 6.1 in this article https://people.reed.edu/~jerry/361/lectures/iqclassno.pdf actually proves the following generalization of Thm. 6.1 beyond quadratic number fields (copied from the last half of pg. 13):
For a field $F$ over $\mathbb Q$ with ring of algebraic integers $\mathscr O_F$ equal to $\mathbb Z[r]$, for $r\in F$ (an algebraic integer) with monic minimal polynomial $f(x)= \operatorname{Irr}(r,\mathbb Q) \in \mathbb Z[x]$, then given a rational prime $p\in \mathbb Z$, the factorization of $\bar f(x)$ in $\mathbb F_p[x]$ dictates the decomposition of the ideal $p\mathscr O_F$: $$\bar f(x) = \prod_{i=1}^g \bar \varphi_i(x)^{e_i} \implies p \mathscr O_F = \prod_{i=1}^g \mathfrak p_i^{e_i} \text{ where } \mathfrak p_i:=(\varphi_i(r), p)^{e_i}, \text{N}(\mathfrak p_i) = p^{\deg(\bar \varphi_i)},$$ where moreover $\sum_{i=1}^g e_i \deg(\bar \varphi_i) = \deg(\bar f)= \deg (f) = [F:\mathbb Q]$. (In the case that $F$ is quadratic, then the factorization of $f$ in $\mathbb F_p[x]$ is completely determined by whether or not the discriminant of $f$ is a (non-zero) square modulo $p$.)
However, I don't see where in the proof the fact that $\mathbb Z[r]$ was a ring of algebraic integers in the field was used. It also seems that the only place $f$ being monic was used was in the last line of the theorem: $\deg(\bar f) = \deg(f)$ (while of course $f\in \mathbb Z[x]$ was very important for the whole proof).
So, I am wondering if the following is true:
For a field $F$ over $\mathbb Q$, and $r\in F$ with minimal polynomial $f(x)= \operatorname{Irr}(r,\mathbb Q)$ normalized (via scalar multiplication) to be in $\mathbb Z[x]$, then given a rational prime $p\in \mathbb Z$, the factorization of $\bar f(x)$ in $\mathbb F_p[x]$ dictates the decomposition of the ideal $p\mathbb Z[r]$: $$\bar f(x) = \prod_{i=1}^g \bar \varphi_i(x)^{e_i} \implies p \mathbb Z[r] = \prod_{i=1}^g \mathfrak p_i^{e_i} \text{ where } \mathfrak p_i:=(\varphi_i(r), p)^{e_i}, \text{N}(\mathfrak p_i) = p^{\deg(\bar \varphi_i)},$$ where moreover $\sum_{i=1}^g e_i \deg(\bar \varphi_i) = \deg(\bar f)$, which is equal to $\deg(f)=[F:\mathbb Q]$ in the case that the leading (integer) coefficient of $f$ is not divisible by $p$. (In the case that $F$ is quadratic, then the factorization of $f$ in $\mathbb F_p[x]$ is completely determined by whether or not the discriminant of $f$ is a (non-zero) square modulo $p$.)
If so, why is the ring of algebraic integers "stealing all the spotlight"? The first half of pg. 14 of the aforementioned Reed article mentions that in the example case $F = \mathbb Q(\sqrt{5})$, we have $\mathscr O_F \supsetneq \mathbb Z[\sqrt 5]$, and "the reduction $x^2-5=(x-1)^2$ modulo $2$ seems to suggest that $2$ ramifies in $\mathbb Q(\sqrt 5)$, but in fact $2$ is inert because $x^2-5x+5$ is irreducible modulo $2$". This seems to answer my question, but this answer already assumes that $\mathscr O_F$ is the center of attention, since "ramifies/inert in $\mathbb Q(\sqrt 5)$" is defined with respect to $\mathscr O_F$!
So what's stopping me from being happy with a nice result about rational prime decomposition in $\mathbb Z[\sqrt 5]$, and defining ramification/inertness w.r.t. $\mathbb Z[\sqrt 5]$, but instead suggesting that my attention should turn to $\mathbb Z[\frac{1+\sqrt 5}2]$?