Let $G$ be a group with transitive automorphisms on $G-\{e\}$. I.e. for any $a,b\neq e$ in $G$, there exists some $f \in \operatorname{Aut}(G)$ such that $f(a) = b$. Is it then necessarily the case, that $G$ is a vector space (over $\mathbb F_p$ or $\mathbb Q$)? If $G$ is finite, this is the case (cf. Groups with transitive automorphisms ) but I don‘t know how to prove it for infinite $G$ or how to construct a counterxample.
I can show that either $k=\mathbb F_p$ or $k=\mathbb Q$ embeds into $G$, but then I am stuck. I tried constructing a maximal embedding $k^I \to G$ of some vector space into $G$ via Zorn’s lemma, but given two embeddings $f,g \colon k \to G$ with disjoint image I can’t show whether $f \times g $ defines an embedding of $k^2$ into $G$ and this is the crucial step missing in applying Zorn’s lemma.
This argument would work, if we assumed $G$ to be abelian of course, but I think we don’t need that assumption.