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I try to use the mean value theorem to prove it, but it seems to need extra conditions like the countable set must be ordered and with more conditions.Like $\mathbb{Q}$, if $f$ isn't differentiable on $\mathbb{Q}$, I can't just take $\mathbb{Q}$ as $\mathbb{Q}:=\{a_0,a_1,a_2,....,a_n,...\}$ and use the theorem on $[0,a_0]$,....,and so on.

It has been shown that this question is the corollary of If $f$ is continuous and $f'(x)\ge 0$, outside of a countable set, then $f$ is increasing

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    I think this is a theorem in one of the books of Dieudonne. – PhoemueX Dec 22 '22 at 19:09
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    How about this answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3292038/if-f-is-continuous-and-fx-ge-0-outside-of-a-countable-set-then-f-is-i – dfnu Dec 22 '22 at 21:44

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