I was given the following question:
Let $S = \{v_1, v_2, v_3\}$ be a set of vectors with $v_i \in \mathbb{Q}^4$. In particular, they are all vectors in the vector space $\mathbb{R}^4$ over $\mathbb{R}$. Is is true that $S$ is linearly independent as vectors in $\mathbb{Q}^4$ if and only if they are linearly independent as vectors in $\mathbb{R}^4$?
What varies in the linear combination of $S$ when considered as a set of vectors over one or another vector space is nothing but the coefficients of the linear combinations. The vectors themselves are stated to be the same.
It is trivially true that if $S$ is linearly independent when considered over $\mathbb{R}$ it will be linearly independent when considered over $\mathbb{Q}$. Indeed, if there are no non-null real coefficients that nullify the linear combination of $S$, there are no non-null rational coefficients that do, since every rational number is real. So the linear independence of $S$ over $\mathbb{R}$ implies its linear independence over $\mathbb{Q}$.
The question remains whether the linear independence of $S$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ implies its linear independence over $\mathbb{R}$. I have come to find no reason for assuming this is the case. However, I don't know how to prove it.
Assume there is no non-trivial multi-set $X = \{x_1, x_2, x_3 \} \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that
\begin{equation*} x_1v_1 + x_2v_2 +x_3v_3 = 0 \tag{$v_i \in \mathbb{Q}$} \end{equation*}
Assume as well there is some non-trivial multi-set $X' = \{x_1', x_2', x_3' \} \in (\mathbb{R} - \mathbb{Q})$ such that
\begin{equation*} x_1'v_1 + x_2'v_2 +x_3'v_3 = 0 \end{equation*}
This only means some $v_i$ is a linear combination of the others, when all of them are scaled by irrational scalars. No contradiction seems to be implied in suggesting this might be true. So it seems the linear independence of $S$ when considered over $\mathbb{Q}$ does not implie its linear independence when considered over $\mathbb{R}$. But then again, this reasoning seems too "soft".
The strongest proof would be to build a counter-example $S'$ with rational vectors that is linearly independent for scalars in $\mathbb{Q}$ but linearly dependent for scalars in $\mathbb{I}$. But I have failed to think of a good case where this is true. Any ideas on how one might settle this question?