Let $V$ be $n$-dimensional vector space over $F$ and $T\in L(V,V)$. If $T$ is diagonalizable and $c_1,…,c_k$ are distinct eigenvalues of $T$, then $m_T=p=(x-c_1)\dotsb (x-c_k)$.
My attempt: We need to show $p$ is monic, $p(T)=0$ and if $f\in F[x]$ such that $f(T)=0$, then $\deg (p)\leq \deg (f)$. Clearly $p$ is monic. By theorem 3 section 6.3, $c_1,…,c_k$ are roots of $m_T$. By this post, $k\leq \deg (m_T)$. It’s easy to check, $\deg (p)=k$. So $\deg (p)\leq \deg (m_T)\leq \deg (f)$. We claim $p(T)=0$. Since $T$ is diagonalizable, $\exists B=\{\alpha_1,…,\alpha_n\}$ basis of $V$ such that $\alpha_i$ is eigenvector of $T$, $\forall i\in J_n$. Let $\alpha_i\in B$. Then $\exists c_j\in F$ such that $T(\alpha_i)=c_j\cdot \alpha_i$. Since $F[x]$ is commutative linear algebra over $F$, we have $p=(x-c_1)\dotsb (x-c_k)=(x-c_1)\dotsb (x-c_{j-1})(x-c_{j+1})\dotsb (x-c_k)(x-c_{j})$. So $p(T)=(T-c_1I)\dotsb (T-c_jI)$. Since $(T-c_jI)(\alpha_i)=0$, we have $[p(T)](\alpha_i)=0$. Since $\alpha_i$ was arbitrary, $[p(T)](\alpha_i)=0$, $\forall i\in J_n$. Thus $p(T)=0$. By uniqueness, $m_T=p$. Is my proof correct?