Show that if $X$ is a topological space and $\pi_1(X, x_0) = 0$, then every map $S^1 \to X$ is null-homotopic.
I think I've boiled this down to the fact that I would need to be sure that if $f : S^1 \to X$ is any map, then $f(S^1)$ is a loop in $X$.
Let $f : S^1 \to X$ be a map such that $x_0 \in f(S^1)$. Now if the image of $f$ is a loop, then $[f] \in \pi_1(X, x_0)$ and since $\pi_1(X,x_0) = 0$ this implies that $f$ is homotopic to $x_0$ i.e. null-homotopic.
I think I need to make these few assumptions here that $f(S^1)$ is a loop and that $x_0 \in f(S^1)$? Are these necessary?