I was working on the following question:
If $$ I = \int_0^\pi \sin(\sin^{-1}\{x\})dx $$ then what is $\big[I\big]$? ($ \{x\} $ means the fractional part of $x$)
My solution went like this: $\sin(\arcsin\{x\}) = \{x\}.$ So the integral simply reduces to:
$$ I = \int_0^\pi \{x\}dx $$ $$ I = 3\int_0^1 x dx + \int_0^{ \pi-3 }xdx $$
So, $\big[I\big] = 1$.
But the given solution went like this:
$$ 0 \le \{x\} < 1 $$ $$ 0 \le \arcsin{\{x\}}<\pi/2$$ $$ 0 \le \sin(\arcsin{\{x\})} < 1$$ $$ \int_0^\pi0dx \le \int_0^\pi\sin(\arcsin{\{x\})} < \int_0^\pi1dx$$ $$ \int_0^\pi0dx \le I < \int_0^\pi1$$
So $\big[ I \big] = 3$.
Now, who is wrong? I believe that the given solution is wrong because the inequality used is strict, so even if $3 <\pi$, still $1<\pi$ holds true. But still, $$ 0 \le \sin(\arcsin{\{x\})} < 1$$
which follows from $$ 0 \le \{x\} < 1 $$
is like $\sin(\arcsin{\{x\})}$ takes all values lesser than one, even those like $0.9999...$ So, the solution still makes 'sense', if thought qualitatively.