Why is it assumed that the mode, in a grouped frequency distribution, lies in the modal class(the class with maximum frequency)?

Asked Sep 21 '22 at 15:43

Active Sep 22 '22 at 03:22

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I am in 10th standard. We are given a formula to find the mode mode = l +[(f1-f0)/(2f1-f0-f2)]h Where l is the lower limit, F1 the modal class i.e the class with most frequencies, f0 the frequency of class preceding the modal class, F2 the frequency of class succeeding the modal class.

Here it is said that it the mode lies in the modal class. But why? Why do we assume that the mode lies in the modal class, even if the actual mode maybe far off.

edited Sep 22 '22 at 03:22

asked Sep 21 '22 at 15:43

macaw_scrlt

Please clarify your specific problem or provide additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it's hard to tell exactly what you're asking. – Community Sep 21 '22 at 15:53

Why is it assumed that the mode, in a grouped frequency distribution, lies in the modal class(the class with maximum frequency)?

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