Let $k$ be a field, not necessarily algebraically closed, and let $A$ be a $k$-algebra of finite type. Recall that $\operatorname{Spec} (A)$ is geometrically integral (over $k$) if $\operatorname{Spec} (A) \times_{\operatorname{Spec} (k)} \operatorname{Spec} k'$ is integral for every field extension $k'$ of $k$. Translated back to algebra, that is the same as requiring that $A \otimes_k k'$ be an integral domain for every field extension $k'$ of $k$.
In particular this is so for $k' = k$, so henceforth we assume $A$ is an integral domain. Let $K = \operatorname{Frac} (A)$, the fraction field of $A$. Then $K \otimes_k k'$ is also an integral domain for every field extension $k'$ of $k$, so in particular $K$ is a separable (but possibly transcendental) field extension of $k$. Also, $A \otimes_k k'$ is an integral domain for every algebraic extension $k'$ of $k$, so $k$ is algebraically closed inside $A$.
Question. Now, suppose $A$ is a $k$-algebra of finite type with the following properties:
- $A$ is an integral domain.
- $k$ is algebraically closed inside $A$.
- $\operatorname{Frac} (A)$ is a separable field extension of $k$.
Does it follow that $A \otimes_k k'$ is an integral domain for every field extension $k'$ of $k$?