I have been reading The Number System by Thurston. In this book he introduces a thing he calls a 'hemigroup' which I think would more conventionally be an 'abelian cancellative monoid'. Hemigroups are $(G,\cdot)$ such that
- $(x\cdot y)\cdot z = x \cdot (y\cdot z)$;
- $x\cdot y = y\cdot x$;
- if $x\cdot y = x\cdot z$ then $y = z$;
- there is $e$ such that $e\cdot e = e$.
Well, it's then easy to show that $e$ is an identity: $x\cdot e = x\cdot(e\cdot e) = (x\cdot e)\cdot e$ and then by cancellativity $x\cdot e = x$.
My question then is: can you introduce an identity for groups the same way? So instead of defining a group as $(G,\cdot)$ where
- $(x \cdot y)\cdot z = x \cdot (y\cdot z)$;
- there is an $e$ such that $e\cdot x = x$ for all $x$;
- For all $x$ there is an $x'$ such that $x'\cdot x = e$;
can you replace the second axiom above by 'there is an $e$ such that $e\cdot e = e$' and derive that $e$ is an identity?
(I think you probably can not, but I'm not sure. Certainly for groups it's easy to show that if $a\cdot a = a$ then $a = e$, but you do this by using that $e$ actually is a (left-)identity. However I am very bad at finding these kind of proofs or showing there are none: I can follow them, but I am terrible at finding new ones.)