I think there is another proof not using the partition of $G$ into $G_d$.
First we prove the theorem for all finite abelian groups. Let $G$ be a finite abelian group, which is decomposed as $G = C_{d_1} \oplus C_{d_2}\oplus\dots\oplus C_{d_m}\,$, $d_1|d_2|\dots|d_m$. If $m\gt1$, then there is a subgroup $D\lt C_{d_2}$ of order $d_1$, contradicting our hypothesis. So $m = 1$, $G=C_{d_1}$ is cyclic.
It remains to show that any finite group satisfying our hypothesis must be abelian. So let $G$ be a finite group. We show first that all Sylow subgroups of $G$ are normal, from which it follows that $G$ must be the direct product of its Sylow subgroups. If $P\in Syl_p(G)$ and $P^g \not= P$ for some $g\in G$, there is some $h \in P$ with $h \notin P^g$. $\langle h \rangle$ and $\langle h^g \rangle$ are two distinct subgroups isomorphic to each other, for otherwise $h \in \langle h^g \rangle \lt P^g$.
We have proven that all Sylow subgroups of $G$ are normal, so $G$ is indeed the direct product of its Sylow subgroups. If we prove that all Sylow subgroups of $G$ are cyclic, then $G$ is abelian, completing the proof. Let $P$ be a group of order $p^n$ satisfying our hypothesis. We prove by induction on $n$. $P$ must have a normal subgroup $Q$ of order $p^{n-1}$, which is already cyclic by the induction hypothesis. Pick an element $a \in P$ with $a \notin Q$. If $a$ has order $p^n$, we are done; otherwise, assume $\langle a\rangle$ has order $p^m$, $1\leq m \lt n$. $Q$, being cyclic, also has a subgroup $\langle b \rangle$ of order $p^m$; $\langle a\rangle \neq \langle b \rangle$ since $a \notin Q$, contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $P$ is cyclic.