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Let $G$ be a group, $|G|=n$. Suppose $\forall d\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $d\mid n$, there are at most $d$ elements such that $x^d=1$. Prove $G$ is cyclic.

I saw these posts:

I am not sure these questions' posts have the same meaning as my own question.

My attempt:

My approach is to show $G$ has at most one subgroup of each of each order $d\mid n$.

Using cauchy theorem there is a cyclic subgroup in order $p$ for each $p\mid n$ such that $p$ is a prime number.

Let $H<G,|H|=p$, $\forall h\in H$ exists $\space O(h)=p$ (Lagrange's Theorem).

Combining this and the given fact that there are at most $p$ elements $\implies H$ is the unique subgroup with order $p$.

My problem is, how do I deal with non-primary order subgroup?

Any help (and another approach) is welcome.

Thanks!

Shaun
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2 Answers2

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Suppose that $G$ isn't cyclic. Let $x\in G$. Then $d=| x|\lt n$. By Euler's formula, $$n=\sum_{d\mid n}\varphi(d)\gt\sum_{d\mid n,d\ne n}\varphi (d)\ge| G|.$$

Contradiction.

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I think there is another proof not using the partition of $G$ into $G_d$.

First we prove the theorem for all finite abelian groups. Let $G$ be a finite abelian group, which is decomposed as $G = C_{d_1} \oplus C_{d_2}\oplus\dots\oplus C_{d_m}\,$, $d_1|d_2|\dots|d_m$. If $m\gt1$, then there is a subgroup $D\lt C_{d_2}$ of order $d_1$, contradicting our hypothesis. So $m = 1$, $G=C_{d_1}$ is cyclic.

It remains to show that any finite group satisfying our hypothesis must be abelian. So let $G$ be a finite group. We show first that all Sylow subgroups of $G$ are normal, from which it follows that $G$ must be the direct product of its Sylow subgroups. If $P\in Syl_p(G)$ and $P^g \not= P$ for some $g\in G$, there is some $h \in P$ with $h \notin P^g$. $\langle h \rangle$ and $\langle h^g \rangle$ are two distinct subgroups isomorphic to each other, for otherwise $h \in \langle h^g \rangle \lt P^g$.

We have proven that all Sylow subgroups of $G$ are normal, so $G$ is indeed the direct product of its Sylow subgroups. If we prove that all Sylow subgroups of $G$ are cyclic, then $G$ is abelian, completing the proof. Let $P$ be a group of order $p^n$ satisfying our hypothesis. We prove by induction on $n$. $P$ must have a normal subgroup $Q$ of order $p^{n-1}$, which is already cyclic by the induction hypothesis. Pick an element $a \in P$ with $a \notin Q$. If $a$ has order $p^n$, we are done; otherwise, assume $\langle a\rangle$ has order $p^m$, $1\leq m \lt n$. $Q$, being cyclic, also has a subgroup $\langle b \rangle$ of order $p^m$; $\langle a\rangle \neq \langle b \rangle$ since $a \notin Q$, contradicting the hypothesis. Thus $P$ is cyclic.

zyy
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    This proof works, but I cannot see why you would prefer it to the proof in the accepted answer, which seems shorter and simpler. – Derek Holt May 15 '25 at 13:41
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    @DerekHolt Well, I agree that the accepted proof is elegant and ingenious, but it essentially relies on an additional structure, which is the partition of the group according to the order of elements. I believe it is easier for beginners to come up with this proof (though tedious) since it only uses common techniques that most students would get familiar with from a first course of abstract algebra. Also, I did not find a similar proof until i posed this answer (I do find some now), so I hoped someone may verify it for me at that time. – zyy May 16 '25 at 04:54
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    I think that different answers need not be justified: they per se worth (if correct), in the spirit of any Q&A site. +1 for me. – Kan't May 16 '25 at 05:17
  • Anyway, thank you both for verifying my answer:) – zyy May 16 '25 at 06:35
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    I have no problem with having a variety of different proofs for a result, but I am still puzzled as to why you regard partitioning elements according to their order as a different structure, whereas Sylow theory is relatively advanced. (At my university, Warwick, Sylow's theorems are covered briefly in a second course of abstract algebra, taken by students in their second year of study, and covered in more depth in a later optional course. The fundamental theorem of abelian groups is also studied only in the second course in abstract algebra.) – Derek Holt May 16 '25 at 08:15
  • @DerekHolt I had little teaching experience, so I think you maybe right about that some beginners feel more comfortable with the standard proof. I should also apologize for my unclear description of the partition as an additional structure. What I actually want to say is, in textbooks on group theory or abstract algebra like Rotman, readers will come across Sylow theory and structure of abelian groups many times, as they can be applied to prove a variety of propositions and exercises. But... – zyy May 16 '25 at 17:55
  • ... they may find partition elements according to their orders, and the function $\phi$ only a few times (only in the proof of this proposition in Rotman, as I remember). Also, when I learn group theory, I get the impression that things are much easier when they are about abelian groups and p-groups. So I tried to prove the result in general only after considering these two special cases. – zyy May 16 '25 at 18:00