3

My question is essentially the same as this one, but I want to significantly expand the scope, because I am very confused about one of the central claims in that question. According to Lemma IX.8.7 of Conway's A Course in Functional Analysis, if $x\in B(H)$ is self-adjoint and has a separating vector, then the image of the Borel functional calculus is all of $W^*(x)$, its enveloping von Neumann algebra. My question is: how can this be true?

To explain my confusion, let's first step away from $B(H)$, and consider the C*-algebra $C(I)$ where $I$ is the unit interval. The von Neumann enveloping algebra of $C(I)$ is $C(I)^{**}$, its Banach space double dual. The inclusion $i:C(I)\rightarrow C(I)^{**}$ factors through the inclusion in $L^\infty(I)$: $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} C(I) @>i_1>> L^\infty(I) @>i_2>> C(I)^{**} \end{CD} $$ These inclusions are all injective. $i_2$ is $L^1(I)$-weak $\rightarrow$ $M(I)$-weak continuous. It seems well known that $i_2$ is not surjective, $C(I)^{**}=M(I)^*$ is much larger than $L^\infty(I)$. It seems a bit strange that $L^\infty(I)$, being a von Neumann algebra, is able to sit between $C(I)$ and its enveloping von Neumann algebra, but this is apparently possible.

By the universal property of the enveloping von Neumann algebra, there exists a unique weak$\rightarrow$weak continuous *-homomorphism $\rho:C(I)^{**}\rightarrow L^\infty(I)$ such that $i_1 = \rho i$. This will be a left inverse of $i_2$, but not an isomorphism.

Now let's map this picture into $B(H)$ using functional calculus. For definiteness, let $H=L^2(I)$, and let $x$ be the self-adjoint operator of "multiplication by $x$" so that the spectrum of $x$ is again the unit interval $I$. We have the following diagram: $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} C^*(x) @>j_1>> B(L^\infty) @>j_2>> W^*(x)\\ @A\Gamma AA @ABAA @AwAA\\ C(I) @>i_1>> L^\infty(I) @>i_2>> C(I)^{**} \end{CD} $$ The Gelfand representation $\Gamma$ is an isomorphism of $C(I)$ with $C^*(x)$. $C^*(x)$ is included in its von Neumann enveloping algebra $j:C^*(x)\rightarrow W^*(x)=\overline{C^*(x)}^{WOT}$. By the universal property of enveloping von Neumann algebras, there is a unique isomorphism $w:C(I)^{**}\rightarrow W^*(x)$ making this diagram commute. In the middle, the Borel functional calculus $B$ maps $L^\infty(I)$ to an algebra between $C^*(x)$ and $W^*(x)$, and also making this diagram commute. I'm aware that, in general, $B$ need not be injective, but my understanding is that this is due to using the wrong measure on the spectrum of $x$. In this case, the constant function $1\in L^2(I)$ is a separating vector, and the measure it generates on the spectrum of $x$ agrees with the usual Lebesgue measure, so with $L^\infty(I)$ already being taken modulo this measure, $B$ is injective. Given all of this, I am prepared to believe that the top row of this diagram is simply the isomorphic image of the bottom row. However, Conway's Lemma IX.8.7 asserts that $j_2$ is surjective, hence an isomorphism. This seems to contradict what was said above about $i_2$ not being an isomorphism.

  • 1
    When you speak of $L^1$ and $L^\infty$, what measure on $[0,1]$ do you have in mind? Lebesgue measure is not always the most relevant measure here. In fact the inclusion of $C(I)$ in the double dual does not factor thru $L^\infty$ (for Lebesgue measure). – Ruy Jun 16 '22 at 19:32
  • 2
    $W^*(x)$ is the von Neumann algebra generated by $x$. This is NOT an enveloping von Neumann algebra. – J. De Ro Jun 16 '22 at 19:37
  • @Ruy Ah, I see. Lebesgue was what I had in mind for $L^\infty$, but a general element of $L^\infty$ cannot be integrated against an arbitrary Radon measure. Like for example, a Dirac measure, otherwise $L^\infty$ functions would be pointwise-defined. So does Conway's lemma imply a canonical isomorphism between $L^\infty$ and $C(I)^{**}$? – ldrinehart Jun 16 '22 at 20:12
  • No! $L^\infty$ is not isomorphic to $C(I)^{**}$. The former has a separable pre-dual while the latter does not! – Ruy Jun 16 '22 at 20:17
  • 1
    I think I now understand @QuantumSpace's comment as well. I was thinking the representation-theoretic definition of the enveloping algebra needed only be a faithful representation, but in fact it is required to be the universal representation. – ldrinehart Jun 16 '22 at 20:23

0 Answers0