I'm referring to Awodey's Category Theory, precisely to the chapter 3.1 on duality principle. Here it is first stated the formal duality: if a statement in the language of category theory can be proved only by the axioms of category theory, also the dual statement (which Awodey specifies formally how to obtain) can be proven, for the axioms are self-dual. Instead the conceptual duality amounts to: if a statement is true interpreted in any category, the dual statement is too. This is justified saying that if a statement is true interpreted in a category $C$, its dual is true interpreted in $C^{op}$ (is this a consequence of the fact that the duality reflects and preserve equality? Is "$=$" the only predicate in the language of categories?); and obviously all the dual categories are just all the categories.
About the relationship between (the "strongness" of) these duality principles, I'd like to know if a statement true in all the categories is provable by the axioms; the converse I'd say is true already. In a certain sense this should be a completeness property, but I'd say that it has not much in common with the first order logic, already by the facts that the structure is made of two sets (objects and arrows) and the composition is defined only on some pairs of arrows for example. Thanks in advance.