I am trying to prove that the differential of the inclusion map $i: X \rightarrow Y$ of a submanifold $X \subset Y$ $$di_x: T_x(X) \rightarrow T_x(Y)$$ is the inclusion map. This question has been asked here before; however, the choice of parametrization in the answer is a bit confusing.
Here is the claim reworded based on my understanding: Let $Y \subset \mathbb{R}^N$ be a $l$-dimensional manifold and $X \subset Y$ a $k$-dimensional manifold. For some neighborhood $x \in U$ in $Y$ we may choose a coordinate system diffeomorphism $\phi: U \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^l$ such that the image of $U \cap X$ is diffeomorphic to the canonical inclusion of $\mathbb{R}^k \subset \mathbb{R}^l$.
Why is this true? Here is my take. What we know is that there is a diffeomorphism $\phi: U \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^l$ such that the image of $U \cap X$ under this map is diffeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^k$ - this is because for some sufficiently small open set $V \subset U$, $V \cap X \simeq \mathbb{R}^k$ (by $X$ being a $k$-manifold) and we can take $U$ such that $U \simeq V$. Hence, $U \cap X \simeq V \cap X \simeq \mathbb{R}^k$. Now we apply a linear transformation on $\phi$ such that the points within $V \cap X$ that represent a basis for $\mathbb{R}^k$ map to the canonical basis of $\mathbb{R}^k$ as a vector subspace of $\mathbb{R}^l$. Is this correct?