In Aluffi's Algebra: Chapter 0, Chapter 2 has the following exercise:
1.8. Let $G$ be a finite group, with exactly one element $f$ of order $2$. prove that $\prod_{g\in G} g = f$.
I can prove this if $G$ is abelian, but can't seem to prove it for the general case. (I think in the general case, the claim in the question is that the any product of all the group elements (irrespective of the order in which the elements appear in the product) equals $f$.)
On this site, I could find a post for the abelian case.
So, if the question is false, can someone confirm it by giving a counterexample?