I would like some guidance in the right direction for my attempt.
Proof.
($\Rightarrow$): First assume strong induction to be true and we prove standard induction. Consider the set $A \subseteq \mathbb{N}$ defined by the conditions, $1 \in A$ and $n \in A \Rightarrow n+1 \in A$. We prove that $A = \mathbb{N}$. Define another set $B \subseteq \mathbb{N}$ such that $B$ contains all $m \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $m \notin A$. Clearly $1 \notin B$ since $1 \in A$. Now assume that $1,...,n \notin B \Rightarrow 1,...,n \in A$. In particular, notice that $n \in A \Rightarrow n+1 \in A$ (by definition of how $A$ is defined.). So by strong induction, we must have $A = \mathbb{N}$ as desired.
($\Leftarrow$): Now assume standard induction and we prove strong induction. Consider the set $C \subseteq \mathbb{N}$ defined by the conditions, $1 \in C$ and $1,...,k \in C \Rightarrow k+1 \in C$. Since $1 \in C$ and $k \in C \Rightarrow k+1 \in C$, we get that $C = \mathbb{N}$ (by use of standard induction). QED.
Please point out any circular reasoning, confusing use of notation or simply if some of my arguments don't make any sense.
Thanks in advance!