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I need to show that $H(x-ct)$ is a solution for the transport equation in the sense of distributions. I'm following the text Partial Differential Equations by Michael Shearer. Specifically, in Section 9.2.2, Example 7, Shearer has written:

Consider a jump discontinuity $u(x,t) = u_-$ for $x < ct$ and $u(x,t) = u_+$ for $x > ct$ where $u_\pm$ and $c$ are constants $\dots$ We rewrite this function using the Heaviside function: $u(x,t) = (u_+ - u_-)H(x - ct) + u_-$ $\dots$ Thus $\frac{du}{dt} = (u_+ - u_-) H'(x - ct) (-c)$.

My question is: How on earth does he obtain the mysterious $-c$ factor in his final expression for $\frac{du}{dt}$?


A little more background: It looks like Shearer is doing something like a chain rule, where differentiation of $H$ against the variable $t$ causes a factor of $-c$ to come out. In office hours, my professor essentially said not to use a chain rule. So I've tried all manner of integration and I just can't get it to work. Here's what one of my attempts looks like. In this attempt, I've tried to treat $u$ and $\phi$ as functions of the single variable $t$, since I am taking a partial derivative. I have no idea if this is the right approach, which is why I'm asking this question.

$$\begin{align*} \langle u', \phi \rangle &= - \langle u, \phi' \rangle \\ &= -\int_{-\infty}^\infty u(x - ct) \phi'(t) \; dt \\ &= \frac{1}{c} \int_{-\infty}^\infty u(z) \phi' \left(\frac{x}{c} - \frac{z}{c} \right) \; dz \\ &= \frac{1}{c} \int_{-\infty}^\infty H(z) \phi'\left(\frac{x}{c} - \frac{z}{c} \right) \; dz \\ &= \frac{1}{c} \int_0^\infty \phi' \left(\frac{x}{c} - \frac{z}{c} \right) \; dz \\ &= \left. \frac{1}{c} \cdot (-c) \cdot \phi\left(\frac{x}{c} - \frac{z}{c} \right) \right|_0^\infty \\ &= -\phi\left(\frac{x}{c}\right), \end{align*}$$ so that $\phi' = -\delta(t - \frac{x}{c}) = \delta(x - ct)$. So...no factor of $-c$ appears. I've tried every thing I can think of. This is one of a dozen attempts. I'm just missing something. Please help!

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    Look at the change-of-variables for the Dirac delta $\delta(ax)=\frac{1}{|a|}\delta(x)$, for $a\neq 0$ (this is essentially a consequence of how changes of variables are defined for distributions). In your case, the error was in saying $\delta(t-\frac{x}{c})=\delta(x-ct)$, (where I assume your logic was that $t-\frac{x}{c}=0$ if and only if $x-ct=0$; but unfortunately that's not how the Dirac delta works). ALso, I'm not sure where your minus sign disappeared to. – peek-a-boo Feb 22 '22 at 08:23
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    i.e if you let $\rho_x(t)=\delta(x-ct)=\delta\left(-c\left(t-\frac{x}{c}\right)\right)$, meaning you think of $\rho_x$ as a distribution in the $t$-variable, then essentially by definition, $\langle \rho_x,\phi\rangle=\frac{1}{|-c|}\phi\left(\frac{x}{c}\right)$. As for why the definition is as such, see my answer to Rigorous proof of the change of coordinates formula for Dirac's delta.. Note that one can weaken the requirement in my answer of $\Phi$ being a diffeomorphism; for this see Hormander's PDE Vol 1 text, section 6.1. – peek-a-boo Feb 22 '22 at 08:32

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