$$ \newcommand{\F}{\mathbb{F}} \newcommand{\R}{\mathbb{R}} \newcommand{\a}{\mathbf{a}} \newcommand{\b}{\mathbf{b}} \newcommand{\c}{\mathbf{c}} \newcommand{\e}{\mathbf{e}} \newcommand{\u}{\mathbf{u}} \newcommand{\v}{\mathbf{v}} \newcommand{\w}{\mathbf{w}} \newcommand{\x}{\mathbf{x}} \newcommand{\y}{\mathbf{y}} \newcommand{\z}{\mathbf{z}} \newcommand{\A}{\mathbf{A}} \newcommand{\B}{\mathbf{B}} \newcommand{\C}{\mathbf{C}} \newcommand{\rank}{\textbf{rank}} \newcommand{\0}{\mathbf{0}} \newcommand{\1}{\mathbf{1}} \newcommand{\U}{\mathrm{U}} \newcommand{\V}{\mathrm{V}} \newcommand{\W}{\mathrm{W}} \newcommand{\L}{\mathcal{L}} $$
With reference to a similar post here, I cannot fully understand the terminology "$T$ determined on $\V$". To elaborate, the theorem states:
Let $\V$ and $\W$ be vector spaces over $\F$.
Suppose $\v_1, ..., \v_n$ is a basis of $\V$ and $\w_1, ..., \w_n$ be a set of arbitrary vectors in $\W$. Then there exists an unique linear map $T: \V \to \W$ such that
$$ T(\v_j) = \w_j , \quad \forall j = 1, ..., n $$
The author mentioned:
The existence part of the next result means that we can find a linear map that takes on whatever values we wish on the vectors in a basis. The uniqueness part of the next result means that a linear map is completely determined by its values on a basis.
I tried to reconcile this with an example from the link above.
Suppose I have a transformation $T: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$. At this point I do not know the exact mapping $T$ yet.
Pick a basis $B=\{\e_1=(1,0), \e_2=(0,1) \}$.
Then $T$ is completely specified by the values $\w_1=T(\e_1),\w_2=T(\e_2)$. At this point, I know such a $T$ must exist and be uniquely determined by the theorem above. This is still vague to me, as I do not understand if $T$ is determined by the basis of $\V$ alone (much confusion with the wording of "determined on $\V$".
So I read on and see the elaboration from the post, the OP mentioned that now he understood that once $T$ is determined by $\w_j$ on $\v_j$, then this $T$ is unique on $\V$. My understanding of determined is that we need to know both $\v_1, \v_2$ (the basis vectors of $\V = \mathbb{R}^2$) and the output $\w_1 = T(\e_1), \w_2 = T(\e_2)$. Consequently, we need to pick any vectors $\w_1, \w_2 \in \W$, say $\w_1 = (1, 1), \w_2 = (2, 0)$ then only can we say that this particular mapping $T$ is uniquely and entirely determined by $\w_j$ on $\v_j$?
Is my understanding correct? It will be great if I can have a concrete example to illustrate the two points the author mentioned.