If $\gcd(a,n)=1$, Show that $$a^b\equiv a^{b\bmod{ \phi(n)}}\pmod n $$ Where $\phi$ is Euler’s totien function.
I saw this on my number theory book but the author didn’t provid any proof of it. We probably would use the fact that $$a^{\phi(n)} \equiv 1\pmod n$$ But I don’t know how to use it properly.