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Let $R$ be a finite ring such that $x^2=x$ for all $x$ in $R$. Prove that $R$ has unity.

I was able to show that it was commutative.

Proof:

$x^2=x$ $x^2-x = 0$ $x (x-1) =0 $

thus $x = 0$ or $x = 1$. Since $x\cdot 1 = x$. 1 is the unity of $R$. Thus $R$ has unity.

I feel like there is something wrong with my solution.

1 Answers1

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You're assuming that $R$ must be a domain. It is possible (or at least you haven't yet ruled it out) that two nonzero elements can multiply to zero. You also assume that $R$ has a unit element in order to prove it has one, which is of course illicit.

Here are some comments that might help. I will use 'ring' to mean "ring, possibly without identity." Rings with $x^2=x$ for all $x$ are called Boolean. You can show, by taking $(x+x)^2$, that all such rings must have characteristic two. This allows us to view such rings as vector spaces over $\mathbb Z_2$. In particular, a finite Boolean ring must have $2^n$ elements for some integer $n$.

For a complete solution, see here.

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