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Given a symmetric bilinear form on $\mathbb{C}^n$ (with associated symmetric matrix $B$) and the algebra $so(B)$ of complex traceless matrices $X$ with $XB+BX^T=0$, i am trying to prove the following statement:

"The algebra $so(B)$ is semisimple if and only if $B$ is non-degenerate".

My first idea was to find a relation between the Killing form $K$ of $so(B)$ and $B$, and then see whether I could obtain the non-degeneracy of $K$ from that of $B$, but I haven't been able to do so. Does anyone have any ideas on this or maybe another approach?

Thanks!

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    If you really keep the extra condition of the $X$ being traceless, then e.g. for the ultimate degenerate $B=0$ you have $so(B) =\mathfrak{sl}_n(\mathbb C)$ which is semisimple (for $n \neq 2$). So the assertion is false and it's good you cannot prove it. – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 18 '21 at 16:59
  • Actually, ignore "$n \neq 2$" in the above (was mixing up $sl$ and $so$ in my mind). Anyway, if I have time later I will post a hint/answer assuming we get rid of the "traceless" condition, where the statement is true for $n\neq 2$. – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 18 '21 at 19:24
  • The idea "to find a relation between $B$ and the Killing form $K$ of $so(B)$" sounds interesting, but I do not see how to get past the first obvious obstacle that $K$ and $B$ live on different vector spaces with different (for $n\neq 3$) dimensions. – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 22 '21 at 23:58

1 Answers1

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As noted in a comment, the statement is actually false as stated. However, if we leave out the restriction to traceless matrices, it becomes almost true:

Proposition: Let $n \in \mathbb N \setminus \{2\}$ and $B \in M_{n\times n}(\mathbb C)$ a symmetric matrix. Then

$$so(B) := \{X \in M_{n \times n}(\mathbb C) : XB + BX^T =0 \}$$

(with its natural vector space structure and Lie bracket given by matrix commutator) is a semisimple Lie algebra if and only if the bilinear form corresponding to $B$ is non-degenerate. (For $n=2$, $so(B)$ is never semisimple.)

Proof sketch / hints:

  1. Straightforward check that the space is a Lie algebra.

  2. Look at two extreme cases: $B=0$ (the zero matrix) and $B =Id_n$. -- In the first case, the condition imposed in the definition of $so(B)$ is empty, so that $so(0)$ is the full Lie algebra of all $n \times n$-matrices, usually called $\mathfrak{gl}_n(\mathbb C)$. This is easily seen to have non-trivial centre and hence is not semisimple. -- In the second case, the Lie algebra is what is usually called $$\mathfrak{so}_n(\mathbb C) := \{X \in M_{n \times n}(\mathbb C): X^T = -X\}$$ and can be shown to be semisimple for all $n \neq 2$ (actually simple for $n=3$ and $n\ge 5$; whereas for $n=2$, it is the one-dimensional abelian Lie algebra). To show this might be the hardest part of the proof, but is of course possible:

  • A computational proof along the lines of $\mathfrak{sl}(3,F)$ is simple might just get a bit intricate.

  • An explicit computation of the root spaces along the lines of https://math.mit.edu/classes/18.745/Notes/Lecture_15_Notes.pdf is maybe the best from a theoretical viewpoint, but here one really needs to know what one is looking for (and e.g. chooses $B$ as the matrix with $1$'s on the antidiagonal instead, so that one can "see" a Cartan subalgebra easily).

  • Finally, user orangeskid brings up a nice approach in a comment, which relies on some Lie theory including a compactness argument to show that for all $n$, $\mathfrak{so}_n(\color{red}{\mathbb R})$ (hence also $\mathfrak{so}_n(\mathbb C)$) is reductive. Then, it's relatively easy to show that for $n \neq 2$, its centre is trivial, so we have semisimplicity (and even kind of "explained" the exception at $n=2$).

  1. The general case is reduced to the two cases above as follows (cf. related answers 1, 2, 3): Note that base change of a symmetric bilinear form corresponds to replacing the representing matrix $B$ by the matrix $P^TBP$, where $P \in GL_{d}(k)$ is the base change matrix between the two bases. (The matrices $B$ and $P^TBP$ are called congruent to each other.) Check that given such $P$, then $X \mapsto P^{-1}X P$ (NB: now one really takes the inverse, not the transpose) defines an isomorphism $so(B) \simeq so (P^TBP)$. -- Next we need a fact from linear algebra, namely, that any symmetric matrix $B$ is congruent to some diagonal matrix; and then further, if the ground field is $\mathbb C$ (or any algebraically closed field), every non-zero diagonal entry can be "scaled" via congruence to $1$, meaning that without loss of generality, $B$ is a diagonal matrix with $n-k$ entries "$1$" and $k$ entries "$0$" and on the diagonal, where $k \in \{0, ..., n\}$. (And this bilinear form is non-degenerate by definition if and only if $k=0$.) -- But for such $B$, it is immediately seen that [EDIT: corrected, thanks] a general $X \in so(B)$ is of the form $$\pmatrix{X_1 & X_2\\0&X_3}$$ where $X_1 \in \mathfrak{so}_{n-k}(\mathbb C)$, $X_3 \in \mathfrak{gl}_k(\mathbb C)$, and $X_2$ is an arbitrary $(n-k) \times k$-matrix. Now, for $k \notin \{0, n\}$, the matrices $\pmatrix{0 & X_2\\0&0}$ form a non-trivial solvable ideal inside this Lie algebra, which thus cannot be semisimple. Thus we are reduced to the cases in 2. In particular, it's clear that $k=0$ is a necessary condition for $so(B)$ to be semisimple.
  • Maybe using $so(n, \mathbb{C})$ has a compact real form $so(n, \mathbb{R})$ to prove ss ? – orangeskid Dec 19 '21 at 09:12
  • Could one prove the original statement, leaving out the case with $B=0$? – Deracless Dec 19 '21 at 15:48
  • @Deracless: If you impose the condition of trace $0$, what changes in this answer is that each $\mathfrak{gl}$ (which is not semisimple) becomes an $\mathfrak{sl}$ (which is semisimple). Hence, you will get a semisimple Lie algebra in almost all cases (only exception: $n-k=2$), very regardless of whether the form is degenerate or not. In other words, the original statement is very wrong. – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 19 '21 at 16:03
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg How do you realize the isomorphism at the end? Would it be difficult to write it out explicitly? – Deracless Dec 19 '21 at 22:57
  • Not at all difficult. If you just write out what $XB + BX^T =0$ explicitly means for this $B$, you'll see it means that the "upper left $k \times k$-block" of $X$ can be anything, the "lower right $(n-k) \times (n-k)$-block" has to be skew-symmetric i.e. $\in \mathfrak{so}_{n-k}$, and the two remaining blocks have to be all zeroes. So the isomorphism obviously sends to the two interesting blocks. – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 20 '21 at 04:53
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    @TorstenSchoeneberg Lets consider the following example. Let $B=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$ and $X=\begin{pmatrix} 0 & a & b & c & d \ -a & 0 & e & f & g \ -b & -e & 0 & e & h \ 0 & 0 & 0 & i & j \ 0 & 0 & 0 & k & -i \end{pmatrix}$ for some arbitrary a,...,k in $\mathbb{C}$. Then $B$ is symmetric and $XB+BX^T=0$, but I can't see how you could decompose as claimed in general. My issue comes with the bijectivity of your wite-up since I can pick $g,d,h$ freely. – Deracless Dec 20 '21 at 09:55
  • @Deracless: Oh gosh, you are right. Sorry, I overlooked that that upper right corner is non-zero too. Will fix that in the answer, thanks. – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 21 '21 at 00:13
  • @orangeskid: Of course it's enough to prove that $so(n, \mathbb R)$ is semisimple, and maybe there is an easier or more elegant way to prove that, using something about compactness, but I would not know what that would be ...? – Torsten Schoeneberg Dec 23 '21 at 00:08
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    @Torsten Schoeneberg: If $g$ is the Lie algebra of a compact group $G$ then there exists an inner product on $g$ that is invariant under $Ad(G)$, so under $ad(g)$. Now, if $a$ is an ideal of $g$, $a^{\perp}$ is again an ideal and $g= a \oplus a^{\perp}$. That shows $g$ is a sum of an abelian (possibly $0$) and a semi-simple. – orangeskid Dec 23 '21 at 03:46