Problem: Let $ f: [0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R} $ be twice continuously differentiable and suppose that $ \int_0^\infty f(x)^2 dx $ , $ \int_0^\infty f''(x)^2 dx $ converge. Then $ \int_0^\infty f'(x)^2 dx $ converges
Attempt: $ \int_{0}^{ k} f'(x)^2 dx = \{ u = f' , u = f, v = f' , v' = f'' \} = f'(x) \cdot f''(x) |_0^k - \int_0^k f\cdot f'' $ [ missing more arguments ].
How can I continue from where I've stopped? It seems to me I need to use some kind of an inequality. If it is Cauchy-Schwartz then I haven't learned about Cauchy-Schwartz Inequality yet, so is there another way?
Edit: Apparently there's the same question here with answers which use Cauchy-Schwartz Inequality: If $f$ and $f''$ are square integrable is $f'$? But my question is whether it is possible to prove the same theorem without using that inequality? as I haven't learned about it yet in relation to integrals.