I can prove it for $x^{\frac{1}{2}}$ and easy rationals like that by just algebraic manipulation.
But how should I approach proving the uniform continuity for all $0<a<1$. At $a=1$ it is just lipschitz. But how to use the lipschitz criteria for any $a>0$?.
Another argument I tried is the sequential criteria.
If I have $x_{n}$ and $y_{n}$ are two sequences such that $|x_{n}-y_{n}|\to 0$. Then $|(x_{n})^{a}-(y_{n})^{a}|\to 0$. So if it be possible that $|(x_{n})^{a}-(y_{n})^{a}|$ does not go to $0$. Then I can find subsequence $|(x_{n_{k}})^{a}-(y_{n_{k}})^{a}|\geq \epsilon$. But then again I run into the problem of algebraically equating $|(x_{n_{k}})^{a}-(y_{n_{k}})^{a}|$ to $|x_{n_{k}}-y_{n_{k}}|$.
Any help is appreciated.