Let $X$ be a Hausdorff and locally compact space, and let $Y = X \cup \{\infty\}$ denote its one-point compactification. Let $Z$ be any Hausdorff compactification of $X$. I want to show the following:
The map $\pi: Z \to Y$ that acts as the identity on $X$ and maps any other element to $\infty$, is a quotient map.
By Section 22 of Munkres, we know that a quotient map $\pi$ must be surjective, and satisfy $U$ is open in $Y$ if and only if $\pi^{-1}(U)$ is open in $Z$. The surjective property of $\pi$ can be verified immediately. It is known that open sets in $Y$ are either open sets of $X$ or of the form $\{\infty\} \cup (X-K)$ (with $K$ compact). For sets $U$ in $X$, we know that $U$ is open in $X$ if and only if $\pi^{-1}(U) = U$ is open in $X$.
My concern arises when dealing with sets of the form $\{\infty\} \cup (X-K)$ (with $K$ compact). I know that $$\pi^{-1}(\{\infty\} \cup (X-K)) = \pi^{-1}(\{\infty\}) \cup (\pi^{-1}(X)\cap\pi^{-1}(K^c)) = \pi^{-1}(\{\infty\}) \cup (X\cap\pi^{-1}(K^c)).$$
We know that $K^c$ is open as $K$ is closed in $X$. If we can show that $\pi^{-1}(\{\infty\})$ is open, then $\pi^{-1}(\{\infty\} \cup (X-K))$ will also be open. Is my thought process correct? If so, how can I verify that $\pi^{-1}(\{\infty\})$ is open?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/49727/dense-and-locally-compact-subset-of-a-hausdorff-space-is-open
– lalaman Nov 01 '21 at 21:55