I used Polar coordinates to evaluate $$L=\lim _{(x, y) \rightarrow(0,0)} \frac{x y^{2}}{x^{2}+y^{4}}$$
We have $x=r\cos \theta$ and $y=r\sin \theta$ and as $(x,y)\to (0,0)$ we have $r \to 0$ So we get $$L=\lim_{r \to 0}\frac{r\cos \theta \sin^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta+r^2\sin^4\theta}=0$$
So irrespective of any path, the limit is zero. I know that this is wrong since the limit actually does not exist, But i have seen some threads in this forum. Here is what i understood.
Even though $r \to 0$, the quantity $$f(r, \theta)=\frac{ \cos \theta \sin ^{2} \theta}{\cos ^{2} \theta+r^{2} \sin ^{4} \theta}$$ might be infinity for some of the paths other than the straight line. For example if we choose the path $x=y^2$, then when $r \to 0$ we get $\theta \to \frac{\pi}{2}$. So the quantity $\frac{\cos \theta \sin ^{2} \theta}{\cos ^{2} \theta+r^{2} \sin ^{4} \theta}$ blows up to infinity. So the limit Does not exist. Is this the correct analysis? Any inputs please add.