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Let $f:\mathbb N\to\mathbb N$ be a strictly increasing function with $f(2)=4$ which is completely multiplicative i.e $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b\in\mathbb N$. Prove that $f(n)=n^2$ for all $n\in\mathbb N$.

This is an exercise on induction. So I am looking for an inductive solution. Here is my progress:

It is easy to see that $f(1)=1$. For the base case, we need to find $f(3)$ which I had some difficulties to find. Now $$ f(3^2) > f(2^3) = 64 \implies f(3)>8\\ f(3^8)<f(2^{13})=67108864\implies f(3)<10 $$

So $8<f(3)<10$ or $f(3)=9$. Now I can show that $f(2^k)=4^k$ for all $k\in\mathbb N$. Then I tried to prove $f(n+1)=(n+1)^2$ assuming $f(i)=i^2$ for all $i\leq n$. But this doesn't work.

So how do I solve the problem?

Oshawott
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  • here is a duplicate, effectively (consider the square root of the function you have in your problem). – lulu Sep 18 '21 at 13:45
  • @lulu Why would the square root of the function still take values in the integers? I agree that we are done once we know that this holds, but it is not clear to me how to conclude that – Severin Schraven Sep 18 '21 at 14:01
  • @SeverinSchraven Ah, you are right. I didn't vote to close the question because I wasn't confident that the arguments in the link were correct or complete...seems like a bit of a treacherous question. Erdos proved general results along these lines, I think, but I don't have a reference handy. – lulu Sep 18 '21 at 14:04
  • @Unknown So, the link I provided is not a good duplicate (at least not without more work). But the problems are obviously closely related, so understanding the other ought to help with this one. – lulu Sep 18 '21 at 14:06
  • I mean clearly, the induction step works, unless you have that $n+1=p$ is a prime. Then all we get is $n^2<f(n+1)<(n+2)^2$. – Severin Schraven Sep 18 '21 at 14:18
  • In that case you can get a good lower bound using $$(p^2-1)^2=(p-1)^2(p+1)^2=f(p-1)f(p+1)=f(p^2-1)<f(p^2)$$ which implies $$p^2-1<f(p).$$ We would like to play the same game for the upper bound, however, we would need to make sure that the number greater than $p^2$ has only prime factors less than $p$. – Severin Schraven Sep 18 '21 at 15:04
  • https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1087910/a-result-of-erd%C5%91s-on-increasing-multiplicative-functions – Matias Heikkilä Sep 18 '21 at 15:41

2 Answers2

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You have already shown the cases $n=1,2$. Now we want to do the induction step. To simplify notation I write $m=n+1$. If $m$ is not prime, we are done (as we can just use the induction hypothesis on the factors). Thus, in the following we will assume that $m$ is prime. First we show a lower bound

$$ f(m)^2=f(m^2) > f(m^2-1)=f(m+1) f(m-1) = (m+1)^2 (m-1)^2 = (m^2-1)^2.$$ We used that $m$ is prime and thus $m\pm 1$ are divisible by $2$, which implies that we can use the induction hypothesis to show $f(m\pm 1)=(m\pm 1)^2$. Taking square root yields $f(m)>m^2-1$.

Next we show the upper bound. Let $N\in \mathbb{N}_{\geq 1}$, then there exists a unique $\ell(N)\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $$ 2^{\ell(N)} \leq m^N < 2^{\ell(N)+1}.$$ Then we have $$ m^N < 2^{\ell(N)+1} \leq 2 m^N. $$ Thus, we obtain $$ f(m)^N < f(2^{\ell(N)+1}) = (2^{\ell(N)+1})^2 < 4 m^{2N}. $$ After taking the $N$th root, we get $$ f(m) \leq 4^{1/N} m^2. $$ Hence, for $N\rightarrow \infty$ we get $$ f(m) \leq m^2. $$ Combining the upper and the lower bound we get $f(m)=m^2$.

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Disclaimer: Not quite sure if this is the inductive proof that the exercise is going for, since that's not the crux step.

  1. Prove by induction that $f(2^k) = 2^{2k}$ for $ n \geq 0$.

  2. Suppose that $ f(n) \geq n^2 + 1$ for $ n \neq 2^i$, then

Find a $k, m \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $(n^2)^m < 2^k < (n^2+1)^m$.
Why must such a $k,m$ exist?

All that we need is $ \log n^2 < \frac{k}{m} \log 2 < \log (n^2 + 1) $, and clearly we can find such a fraction $ \frac{k}{m}$ to satisfy the inequality.

Hence, reach the contradiction:

$$ (n^2+1)^{2m} \leq f(n)^{2m} = f(n^{2m} ) < f(2^k) = 2^{2k} < (n^2+1)^{2m}.$$

So, $ f(n) \leq n^2$.

Note: This is essentially what you did with $9^ 4 < 2^{13} < 10^4$ to conclude that $f(3) < 10$.

  1. Likewise for $ f(n) \leq n^2 -1 $ we have a contradiction.

Note: This is essentially what you did with $ 8 \leq 2^3 < 9$ to conclude that $8 < f(3) $.
(Just that I'm enforcing strict inequality on both sides. Obviously inequality on one side is enough and will always happen, but I didn't want to complicate with a minor detail.)

  1. Hence $f(n) = n^2$.

This is much uglier, and still not very induction-y

  1. Prove by induction that $f(2^k) = 2^{2k}$ for $ n \geq 0$.

  2. Prove by strong induction on $n \geq 4$ that $f(n) = n^2$.
    If $n=ab$ is not a prime, then we have $f(n) = f(ab) = f(a)f(b) = a^2b^2 = n^2 $.
    If $ n \geq 4$ is a prime, then $ n-1, n+1$ have prime factors $<n$ so $ f(n-1) = (n-1)^2, f(n+1) = (n+1)^2$. Thus $(n-1)^2 < f(n) < (n+1)^2$.

We now consider how to bound $ f( n^{2^k} ) = f(n) ^{2^k} $ using $ f(n+1), f(n-1)$ to tighten the inequality further.

For all $k$, there is a unique integer $a_k $ such that
$$ (n+1)^ {a_k} (n-1) ^ { 2^k - a_k } < n^{2^k} < (n+1)^{a_k +1} (n-1) ^ {2^k - a_k - 1 }, $$

or that

$$ \frac{ a_k \log (n+1) + (2^k - a_k ) \log(n-1) } { 2^k } < \log n < \frac{ (a_k+1) \log (n+1) + (2^k - a_k -1 ) \log(n-1) } { 2^k }$$

Notice that the difference between the extreme ends of the inequality is $ \frac {\log(n+1) - \log(n-1) } { 2^k}$ which tends to 0, the LHS is bounded above by $\log n$, the RHS is bounded below by $ \log n$, hence both of their limits are $ \log n$.

This gives us

$$ (n+1)^{2a_k} (n-1)^{2(2^k-a_k) } < f(n)^{2^k} < (n+1)^{2(a_k+1)} (n-1)^{2(2^k-a_k-1) },$$

or that

$$ \frac{ (2a_k) \log(n+1) + 2(2^k- a_k ) \log(n-1)}{2^k} < \log f(n) < \frac{(2a_k) \log(n+1) + 2(2^k- a_k ) \log(n-1)}{2^k} $$

Since the LHS and RHS have the same limit of $ 2 \log n$, it follows that $ \log f(n) = 2 \log n \Rightarrow f(n) = n^2$.

Calvin Lin
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  • If $ \frac{m}{n} <\frac{\log p}{ \log 2} $ then $f(p) > 4^{\frac{m}{n}} ; , ;$ but when $ \frac{m}{n} >\frac{\log p}{ \log 2} $ then $f(p) < 4^{\frac{m}{n}} ; . ;$ By continuity, $f(p) = 4^{\frac{\log p}{ \log 2}} ; . ; $ – Will Jagy Sep 18 '21 at 21:20
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    @WillJagy Right, that is what I'm going for. There is a way to convert this into an "induction" proof by essentially using the bijection method of finding roots. However, my brain is slightly fried right now. – Calvin Lin Sep 18 '21 at 21:22
  • I don't see induction in this problem; maybe if we saw the entire chapter of the book being used..... – Will Jagy Sep 18 '21 at 21:28