$x^4y'' + c^2y = 0$: How would you go on about solving this problem? WolframAlpha solved it by substituting $y=x \cdot v(x)$ and then letting $t=\frac{1}{x}.$
Does anyone have a more intuitive way of solving it? If not, why is the substitution exactly $y=x \cdot v(x)$? However, I have never heard of this method before. What I tried to do is naively let $x^2=u$, and then proceed to do the equation as an Euler-Cauchy equation. I came to a solution but it is nothing alike the one WolframAlpha provided which leads me to think it can't be solved that way.