First let's compute $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{N}$. Certainly $p\mathbb{N}$ is a prime ideal for every positive prime $p\in\mathbb{Z}$, and you can check that both $\{0\}$ and $\mathbb{N}\setminus\{1\}$ are prime ideals. As @Zhen Lin points out in the comments, these are in fact the only prime ideals of $\mathbb{N}$; to see why, suppose $P$ is a non-zero prime ideal of $\mathbb{N}$. Then there exists some non-zero natural number in $P$; if $P$ contains $1$, then $P=\mathbb{N}$, a contradiction. So $P$ contains a natural number greater than one, and hence must contain one of its prime factors $p$. If every element of $P$ is divisible by $p$, then $P=p\mathbb{N}$. Otherwise $P$ contains an element outside of $p\mathbb{N}$, and hence must contain one of its prime divisors $q$, which is necessarily distinct from $p$. By the "coin theorem", $P$ now contains every number greater than $pq-p-q$. In particular, for any $n>1$, there exists some $k$ such that $n^k>pq-p-q$, whence $n^k\in P$ and so $n\in P$. So $P=\mathbb{N}\setminus\{1\}$, as desired.
Now let's compute $\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{T}$. By convention, I take $\mathbb{T}=\mathbb{R}\cup\{\infty\}$, with $\oplus$ as $\min$ and $\otimes$ as $+$. Note that $\{\infty\}$ is a prime ideal of $\mathbb{T}$; I claim it is the only one, and that it is in fact the only proper ideal of $\mathbb{T}$. To see this, suppose that $I$ is a proper ideal of $\mathbb{T}$ containing some $x\in\mathbb{R}$. Then $I\ni\lambda\otimes x$ for every $\lambda\in\mathbb{T}$. In particular, for any $y\in\mathbb{R}$, $I$ contains $(y-x)\otimes x=y$, and furthermore $I$ contains $\infty\otimes x=\infty$. So $I=\mathbb{T}$, a contradiction. Thus indeed $\{\infty\}$ is the only prime ideal of $\mathbb{T}$.