Let $G$ be a finite group. Is the following statement true or false? If $g\in G$ has order $m$ and if $n\geq 1$ divides $m$, then $G$ has a subgroup of order $n$.
I tried two counter-examples for this one. One is $\mathbb Z_{2}\times\mathbb Z_{3}$, it has an element of order $6$ and $6$ divides $6$ but it has no subgroup of order $6$. Another example is the Alternating group $A_{4}$, its order is $12$ $\Rightarrow$ it has an element of order $12$ and $6$ divides $12$ but $A_{4}$ has no subgroup of order $6$. Please correct me if I am wrong somewhere. This question was in the previous paper of a competitive exam. There were four options given and among them, this was also there. According to me, the statement above is false but this is given as true. Please guide me through this. Help would be much appreciated. Thanks!!