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I am struggling with exercise 5 page 304 in Global Aspects of Classical Integrable Systems,Cushman and Bates

Let $g$ be a Riemannian metric on a smooth manifold $M$. In local coordinates $x = (x_1,... x_n)$ the metric may be written as $g = \sum g_{ij} dx^i \otimes dx^j$

Let $v = (x, \nu) = (x^1,..., x^n, \nu^1,... \nu^n)$ be natural coordinates on TM. Show that the pullback $\theta_g$ by the map $g^\#$ to $TM$ of the canonical 1-form $\theta$ on $T^*M$ may be written as $\theta_g(\nu) = \sum g_{i j}\nu^i dx^j$

Setting the problem:

  • Take coordinates on $T^*M$ to be $m = (x, p)$

  • Canonical 1-form $\theta$ on $T^*M$ \begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \theta\in \chi ^*(T^*M)\\ \theta: \chi (T^*M) \rightarrow C^\infty(\mathbb{R})\\\theta_m: T_m(T^*M) \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \\ \theta_{m=(x, p)} = \sum_i p_i dx^i \end{aligned} \end{equation} $\;\;\;\;\;$ * Let $w \in T_m(T^*M), \quad w = \sum_i^n w_i \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x^i} + \sum_{i=1}^{n} w'_{i} \dfrac{\partial}{\partial p^i}$
    $\;\;\;\;\;$ * Then $\theta_m(w) = \sum_i w_ip_i$.

  • The map $g(x)^\#$ on $T_xM$ is the isomorphism induced by $g(x)$ between $T_xM$ and $T^*_xM$
    \begin{equation} \begin{aligned} &g^\#(v) = g(x)^\#(\nu) \text{ is such that } [g(x)^\#(\nu)](\mu) = g_x(\nu, \mu), \quad \mu \in T_xM \end{aligned} \end{equation}

  • Pullback of a 1-form (Wikipedia):

Let $\phi:M \rightarrow N$ be a smooth map between smooth manifolds, and let $\alpha$ be a 1-form on $N$. \newline Then the pullback of $\alpha$ by $\phi$ is the 1-form $\phi^*\alpha$ on $M$ defined by: \begin{equation} (\phi^*\alpha)_x(X) = \alpha_{\phi(x)}(d\phi_x(x)) \end{equation} for $x \in M$ and $X \in T_xM$

  • Property of the tautological one-form from Wikipedia: The tautological one-form is the unique one-form that "cancels" the pullback. The tautological one-form $\theta$ is the only form with the property that $\beta^*\theta = \beta$, for every 1-form $\beta$ on $Q$

My confusion and my attempt
While $\theta$ is a one-form on $T^*M$, it seems to me that $g^\#$ maps to $T^*_xM$. (Indeed once we feed the metric a tangent vector we have decided on an attachment point $x$ of the manifold)

My solution was instead to define $g^\#:TM \rightarrow T^*M$ \begin{equation} g^\#(x, \nu) = (x, g^2(x)^\#(\nu)) \end{equation} where $[g^2(x)^\#(\nu)](\mu) = g(x)(\nu, \mu)$

  • Attempt component-wise \begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \theta_g(v) = [(g^\#)^*\theta] (v) &= \theta ( g^\#(v))\circ dg^\#_v \\ &= \theta ( g^\#(x^i, \nu^i))\circ dg^\#_v\\ &= \theta(\sum g_{ij}(x) \nu^i dx^j) \circ dg^\#_v\\ &= (\sum g_{ij}(x) \nu^i dx^j) \circ dg^\#_v \end{aligned} \end{equation} Is this a valid method ? Can I show $dg^\#_v$ acts as the identity map on $\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$ components ?

  • I have also been attempting a solution using the "tautological one form cancels pullback" identity
    My "solution" has been to fix $\nu$ while varying $x$ thus defining the one-form: $$g^\#_\nu: M \rightarrow T^*M $$ $$g^\#_\nu(x) \text{ is such that: }$$ $$g^\#_\nu(x)(\mu) = g_x(\nu, \mu) $$

Pulling $\theta$ back by $g^\#_\nu$ : $$\theta_g = (g^\#_\nu)^*\theta = g^\#_\nu = \iota_\nu g = \sum g_{ij} \nu^i dx^j $$

There are obviously several problems with this solution, $\theta_g$ acts in $M$ instead of $TM$ and it is odd to fix a covector $\nu$ in this way.

I am unsure how to define $g^\#$ to get spaces to properly match up, I am unsure how to deal with the fact the tautological form on $T^*M$ "looks" like a one-form on $M$

Any help with this exercise, or suggestions on simpler exercises to tackle that migh help would be very welcome.

Mr Lolo
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    Did you see the "metric space" section of the tautological 1-form Wikipedia page? If you haven't it might help a bit

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tautological_one-form#On_metric_spaces

    – taylorsVersion Jul 15 '21 at 15:28
  • Oh, not sure how I missed that. It seems the metric is indeed taken to be a map from the tangent bundle to the cotangent bundle. Is the map as I defined it above, with the x component being preserved ? – Mr Lolo Jul 15 '21 at 15:34
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    Yes the $x$ component has to be preserved because data doesn't move between fibers (unless we also have a diffeomorphism $F: M \to M$ like translation on a Lie group or a flow) – taylorsVersion Jul 15 '21 at 15:54

1 Answers1

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First a small remark: the standard notation for the map induced by $g$ from $TM\to T^*M$ (for which you have given a correct definition) is $g^{\flat}$ rather than $g^{\sharp}$ or $g^{\#}$; we define $g^{\sharp}:=(g^{\flat})^{-1}:T^*M\to TM$.

Next, I hope you know that the coordinate $x^i$ is being used 3 times with 3 different meanings (once as coordinates on the base manifold, once as projection to base coordinates on $TM$ and once as the projection to base coordinates on $T^*M$). For the sake of clarity, I shall explicitly use a different notation: $(x^1,\dots, x^n)$ be the coordinates on $M$, then the corresponding "base coordinates" on $TM$ and $T^*M$ are $x^i\circ \pi_{TM}=(\pi_{TM})^*x^i$ and $x^i\circ \pi_{T^*M}=(\pi_{T^*M})^*x^i$.

Now, the tautological one-form is $\theta=p_i\,d(x^i\circ \pi_{T^*M})$. So, if we pull-back using $g^{\flat}$, then using the fact that pull-back commutes with multiplication and exterior derivatives, and that pullback of functions is just composition, we have \begin{align} \theta_g&:=(g^{\flat})^*\theta\\ &=(g^{\flat})^*p_i \cdot (g^{\flat})^*[d(x^i\circ \pi_{T^*M})]\\ &=(p_i\circ g^{\flat})\cdot d(x^i\circ \pi_{T^*M}\circ g^{\flat})\\ &=(p_i\circ g^{\flat})\cdot d(x^i\circ \pi_{TM}) \end{align} Now, all that remains is to calculate $p_i\circ g^{\flat}$. If we consider a tangent vector $\xi\in T_aM$, then we can expand it as $\xi=\nu^j(\xi)\cdot \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}(a)$, and thus due to fiber-wise linearity, \begin{align} (p_i\circ g^{\flat})(\xi)&=p_i\left[\nu^j(\xi)\cdot g^{\flat}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}(a)\right)\right]\\ &=p_i\left[\nu^j(\xi)g_{jk}(a)\cdot dx^k(a)\right]\\ &:=\nu^j(\xi)\cdot g_{ji}(a)\\ &=[(g_{ij}\circ \pi_{TM})\cdot \nu^j](\xi) \end{align} Therefore, \begin{align} \theta_g&=[g_{ij}\circ \pi_{TM}]\cdot \nu^j\,d(x^i\circ \pi_{TM}), \end{align} or if we suppress the projection $\pi_{TM}$ (which usually causes no harm once we get used to this sort of calculation) then we can write this as (using symmetry of $g_{ij}$) \begin{align} \theta_g&=g_{ij}\nu^i\,dx^j. \end{align}

peek-a-boo
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  • Thank you this is a huge help, the use of the projection maps makes things much clearer and I have found the $g^\sharp$ command to prevent further offences. – Mr Lolo Jul 16 '21 at 17:01
  • I think part of my difficulties was properly interpreting $(a, \xi) \in TM$. If I've understood correctly, the information pertaining to the attachment point is contained in the basis vectors to the tangent space. An object in TM is a tangent vector along with information about its attachment point, rather than some union of a point in the base space and a vector in the corresponding tangent space. Is this correct ? – Mr Lolo Jul 16 '21 at 17:01
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    @MrLolo I guess this boils down to which definition of tangent space one actually uses. For example, using the derivations approach, the different tangent spaces are not disjoint (the zero derivation is in all of them), so one defines $TM:=\bigcup_{a\in M}{a}\times T_aM$, while if one uses another definition (say using equivalence class of curves), then the tangent spaces are already disjoint, so one just defines $TM:=\bigcup_{a\in M}T_aM$, and then the projection is $\pi$ taking an equivalence class of curves $\xi=[\gamma]$ to the point $\gamma(0)\in M$. – peek-a-boo Jul 16 '21 at 23:23
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    So, whether one wishes to consider an element of $TM$ as an ordered tuple $(a,\xi)$ where $a\in M$ and $\xi\in T_aM$, or whether one considers it simply as an element $\xi\in T_aM\subset TM$ is entirely a matter of definitions. – peek-a-boo Jul 16 '21 at 23:26
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    just a heads up: you may encounter these calculations in a physics setting as $p_i=g_{ij}\dot{q}^j$ (in place of the more precise $(g^{\flat})^*p_i=(g_{ij}\circ \pi_{TM})\cdot \nu^j$), and one "identifies" $\theta$ and $\theta_g$ simply by saying $p_i,dq^i=g_{ij}\dot{q}^i,dq^j$. Physically, one regards the equation $p_i=g_{ij}\dot{q}^j$ as saying that the Riemannian metric is what converts between velocities and momenta, so we regard $g$ as encoding the "mass" of the system (or moment of inertia if one is dealing with rotational mechanics etc) – peek-a-boo Jul 16 '21 at 23:56
  • @peek-a-boo Thank you for a a very clear answer. I also have been struggling with the notions of momentum. However, I couldn't follow your defining relation $p_i\left[\nu^j(\xi)g_{jk}(a)\cdot dx^k(a)\right] := \nu^j(\xi)\cdot g_{ji}(a)$. Can you please explain the logic? – damaihati Nov 07 '23 at 04:35
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    @damaihati recall the definition of $p_i$. It is the ‘fiber coordinates’ on the cotangent bundle. So, it is fiber-wise linear, hence the $\nu^j(\xi)g_{jk}(a)$, which are just numbers, come out. So you have to simply evaluate $p_i[dx^k(a)]$. What is this by definition? If still unclear, see the fourth bullet point here. – peek-a-boo Nov 07 '23 at 04:48
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    (the $p_i$ here is the same as the $\xi_i$ there… and if you look at the fourth bullet point there you’ll see that actually we don’t even need to mention fiber-wise linearity; the equality is almost by definition) – peek-a-boo Nov 07 '23 at 04:53
  • @peek-a-boo thank you, Let me check. – damaihati Nov 07 '23 at 05:04
  • @peek-a-boo Yes, it is now clear. $p_i$ and $\nu^j(\xi) g_{jk}(a) dx^k(a)$ here are $\xi_i$ and $\lambda$ there respectively. $p_i[\nu^j (\xi) g_{jk}(a) dx^k(a)] = \nu^j (\xi) g_{jk}(a) p_i[dx^k(a)] = \nu^j (\xi) g_{jk}(a) dx^k(a) \left[ \frac{\partial}{\partial x^i (a)} \right] = \nu^j (\xi) g_{jk}(a) \delta^k_i = \nu^j (\xi) g_{ji}(a)$ . – damaihati Nov 07 '23 at 06:11