If you let $y=\ln(x)$, then $x=e^y$. Performing implicit differentiation on $x=e^y$ to find $y'$ will give you $1=y'e^y$. Since $x=e^y$, we can substitute $x$ for $e^y$ to give us $1=xy'$. Solving for $y'$ will give $y'=(1/x)$
Is this a sound proof for $(\ln(x))'$?